HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Quiz
1. The charge nurse of the medical-surgical unit is making staff assignments. Which staff member should be assigned to a client with chronic kidney disease who is exhibiting a low-grade fever and a pericardial friction rub?
- A. Registered nurse who just floated from the surgical unit
- B. Registered nurse who just floated from the dialysis unit
- C. Registered nurse who was assigned the same client yesterday
- D. Licensed practical nurse with 5 years of experience on this floor
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The client is exhibiting symptoms of pericarditis, which can occur with chronic kidney disease. Continuity of care is crucial to assess subtle changes in clients' conditions. Therefore, the registered nurse (RN) who previously cared for this client should be assigned again. Float nurses may lack knowledge of the unit and its clients, potentially leading to oversight of critical details. The licensed practical nurse, while experienced, may not possess the advanced assessment skills and education level of an RN to effectively evaluate and manage pericarditis in this client.
2. A 70-kg adult with chronic renal failure is on a 40-g protein diet. The client has a reduced glomerular filtration rate and is not undergoing dialysis. Which result would give the nurse the most concern?
- A. Albumin level of 2.5 g/dL
- B. Phosphorus level of 5 mg/dL
- C. Sodium level of 135 mmol/L
- D. Potassium level of 5.5 mmol/L
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In chronic renal failure, a protein-restricted diet is crucial to prevent the buildup of waste products. A low albumin level (<3.5 g/dL) indicates inadequate protein intake, raising concern as it may lead to malnutrition and tissue breakdown. Phosphorus, sodium, and potassium levels are not directly impacted by protein intake. Phosphorus levels may elevate in renal failure, but at 5 mg/dL, it is within normal range. Sodium and potassium levels are also within normal limits and not influenced by protein restriction.
3. After delegating to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) the task of completing a bladder scan examination for a client, the nurse evaluates the UAP’s performance. Which action by the UAP indicates the nurse must provide additional instructions when delegating this task?
- A. Selecting the female icon for all female clients and the male icon for all male clients
- B. Explaining to the client, 'This test measures the amount of urine in your bladder.'
- C. Applying ultrasound gel to the scanning head and cleaning it after use
- D. Taking at least two readings using the aiming icon to position the scanning head
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the UAP should select the female icon for women who have not had a hysterectomy to allow the scanner to subtract the volume of the uterus from readings. If a woman has had a hysterectomy, the UAP should choose the male icon. Choice B is incorrect as it is essential for the UAP to explain the procedure to the client to ensure understanding. Choice C is incorrect because applying ultrasound gel to the scanning head and cleaning it after use are appropriate actions. Choice D is incorrect as it is necessary for the UAP to take at least two readings using the aiming icon to position the scanning head accurately for an effective bladder scan examination.
4. The client with chronic renal failure is being taught about dietary restrictions by the nurse. Which of the following food items should the client avoid?
- A. Apples
- B. Bananas
- C. Chicken
- D. Rice
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bananas. Bananas are high in potassium, which should be limited in clients with chronic renal failure to prevent hyperkalemia. Apples (choice A), chicken (choice C), and rice (choice D) are not typically restricted in clients with chronic renal failure. Apples and rice are lower in potassium, while chicken is a good source of lean protein, which is usually encouraged in these clients to meet their protein needs without excess potassium intake.
5. A client’s baseline vital signs are temperature 98°F oral, pulse 74 beats/min, respiratory rate 18 breaths/min, and blood pressure 124/76 mm Hg. The client suddenly spikes a fever to 103°F. Which of the following respiratory rates would the nurse anticipate as part of the body’s response to the change in client status?
- A. 12 breaths/min
- B. 16 breaths/min
- C. 18 breaths/min
- D. 22 breaths/min
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client experiences a fever, there is an increase in body temperature, leading to a higher metabolic rate and oxygen demand. As a result, the respiratory rate typically increases to meet the body's increased oxygen needs. Therefore, in response to the fever spike from 98°F to 103°F, the nurse would anticipate a higher respiratory rate. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because a decrease in body temperature, not an increase as seen in fever, would lead to a decrease in respiratory rate to conserve energy and oxygen consumption.
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