which of the following is a common cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease copd
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Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet

1. Which of the following is a common cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Smoking is the correct answer as it is a well-established common cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Smoking leads to long-term damage to the lungs, contributing to the development of COPD. Choice B, asthma, is not a cause but a separate respiratory condition characterized by airway inflammation and hyperresponsiveness. Allergies, choice C, are not a direct cause of COPD but can exacerbate symptoms in individuals with existing COPD. Chronic bronchitis, choice D, is a type of COPD, not a cause of COPD itself, making it an incorrect choice in this context.

2. An emergency department nurse assesses a client with kidney trauma and notes that the client’s abdomen is tender and distended, and blood is visible at the urinary meatus. Which prescription should the nurse consult the provider about before implementation?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with kidney trauma and blood visible at the urinary meatus, inserting a urinary catheter via the urethra should be avoided until further diagnostic studies are completed to prevent potential urethral tears. The nurse should consult the provider about the need for a catheter; if necessary, a suprapubic catheter can be used instead. Assessing vital signs every 15 minutes is important for continuous monitoring of the client's condition. Administering intravenous fluids at 125 mL/hr is crucial to maintain hydration and support kidney function. Typing and crossmatching for blood products is necessary in case the client requires blood transfusion due to potential blood loss from the trauma.

3. A client who has undergone abdominal surgery calls the nurse and reports that she just felt 'something give way' in the abdominal incision. The nurse checks the incision and notes the presence of wound dehiscence. The nurse immediately:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the scenario described, the presence of wound dehiscence indicates a separation of the layers of the surgical incision. The immediate priority for the nurse is to cover the abdominal wound with a sterile dressing moistened with sterile saline solution. This helps to protect the wound from contamination and promotes a moist environment conducive to healing. Contacting the physician (Choice A) is important, but the initial action should be to address the wound. Documenting the findings (Choice B) is necessary but not the immediate priority. Placing the client in a supine position with the legs flat (Choice C) is not indicated in this situation as wound dehiscence requires wound care intervention.

4. The nurse is providing teaching to a patient who will begin taking a cephalosporin to treat an infection. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patients should take all of an antibiotic regimen even after symptoms clear to ensure complete treatment of the infection.

5. The nurse is preparing to administer trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) to a patient who is being treated for a urinary tract infection. The nurse learns that the patient has type 2 diabetes mellitus and takes a sulfonylurea oral antidiabetic drug. The nurse will monitor this patient closely for which effect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient takes oral antidiabetic agents (sulfonylurea) along with sulfonamides like trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, it can lead to an increased hypoglycemic effect. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the patient closely for hypoglycemia. Headaches, hypertension, and superinfection are not typically associated with the interaction between sulfonamides and sulfonylureas. Examples of antidiabetic sulfonylurea medications include glipizide, glimepiride, glyburide, tolazamide, and tolbutamide.

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