Nursing Elites

1. The client with chronic renal failure is being taught about the importance of fluid restrictions. Which of the following statements by the client indicates that the teaching has been effective?

• A. I can drink as much fluid as I want, as long as I take my medication.
• B. I will need to limit my fluid intake to prevent fluid overload.
• C. I can drink as much water as I want, as long as I limit other fluids.
• D. I will need to drink only when I am thirsty.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'I will need to limit my fluid intake to prevent fluid overload.' In chronic renal failure, fluid restrictions are crucial to prevent fluid overload and further damage to the kidneys. Option A is incorrect as unrestricted fluid intake can worsen the condition. Option C is also incorrect as total fluid intake needs to be restricted, not just other fluids. Option D is not ideal because thirst may not accurately reflect the body's fluid needs in chronic renal failure.

2. A client who has developed acute kidney injury (AKI) due to an aminoglycoside antibiotic has moved from the oliguric phase to the diuretic phase of AKI. Which parameters are most important for the nurse to plan to carefully monitor?

• A. Side effects of total parenteral nutrition (TPN) and Intralipids.
• B. Uremic irritation of mucous membranes and skin surfaces.
• C. Elevated creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN).
• D. Hypovolemia and electrocardiographic (ECG) changes.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During the diuretic phase of acute kidney injury (AKI), monitoring for hypovolemia and electrocardiographic (ECG) changes is crucial. Hypovolemia can occur due to the increased urine output in this phase, potentially leading to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Electrolyte imbalances can result in ECG changes, such as arrhythmias, which can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful monitoring of fluid status and ECG findings helps in preventing complications. Choices A, B, and C are not the most crucial parameters to monitor during the diuretic phase of AKI. Side effects of total parenteral nutrition (TPN) and Intralipids, uremic irritation of mucous membranes and skin surfaces, and elevated creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) are important considerations in other phases of AKI or in other conditions, but they are not the primary focus during the diuretic phase when hypovolemia and ECG changes take precedence.

3. The nurse is preparing to administer the first dose of intravenous ceftriaxone (Rocephin) to a patient. When reviewing the patient’s chart, the nurse notes that the patient previously experienced a rash when taking amoxicillin. What is the nurse’s next action?

• A. Administer the drug and observe closely for hypersensitivity reactions.
• B. Ask the provider whether a cephalosporin from a different generation may be used.
• C. Contact the provider to report drug hypersensitivity.
• D. Notify the provider and suggest an oral cephalosporin.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient has a history of a rash with amoxicillin, a beta-lactam antibiotic like ceftriaxone should be administered cautiously due to a possible cross-reactivity. The nurse should still administer the drug but closely monitor the patient for any signs of hypersensitivity reactions. Asking for a different generation of cephalosporin or suggesting an oral form does not address the potential cross-reactivity issue. Contacting the provider to report drug hypersensitivity would delay care when the patient needs immediate treatment.

4. When working with a large population of African-American clients at a community health center, which priority assessment should a nurse include?

• A. Measure height and weight.
• B. Assess blood pressure.
• C. Observe for any signs of abuse.
• D. Ask about medications.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing blood pressure is the priority assessment when working with a population of African-American clients due to the high prevalence of hypertension in this group. African Americans have a higher risk of hypertension, which can lead to complications like end-stage renal disease. Monitoring blood pressure allows for the early detection and management of hypertension. While measuring height and weight, observing for signs of abuse, and asking about medications are important assessments, assessing blood pressure is crucial in this context to address the specific health needs of African-American clients.

5. Which of the following is the best position for a patient experiencing dyspnea?

• A. Supine position.
• B. Fowler's position.
• C. Trendelenburg position.
• D. Lateral recumbent position.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Fowler's position is the best position for a patient experiencing dyspnea. This position involves sitting the patient upright with the head of the bed elevated between 45-60 degrees. Fowler's position helps improve breathing in patients with dyspnea by promoting lung expansion, aiding in better oxygenation, and reducing the work of breathing. The supine position (Choice A) may worsen dyspnea by limiting lung expansion. The Trendelenburg position (Choice C) with the feet elevated and the head down is not recommended for dyspnea as it can increase pressure on the chest and compromise breathing. The lateral recumbent position (Choice D) is not ideal for dyspnea as it does not provide optimal lung expansion and may not alleviate breathing difficulty.

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