HESI RN
Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet
1. The client with chronic renal failure is being taught about the importance of fluid restrictions. Which of the following statements by the client indicates that the teaching has been effective?
- A. I can drink as much fluid as I want, as long as I take my medication.
- B. I will need to limit my fluid intake to prevent fluid overload.
- C. I can drink as much water as I want, as long as I limit other fluids.
- D. I will need to drink only when I am thirsty.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'I will need to limit my fluid intake to prevent fluid overload.' In chronic renal failure, fluid restrictions are crucial to prevent fluid overload and further damage to the kidneys. Option A is incorrect as unrestricted fluid intake can worsen the condition. Option C is also incorrect as total fluid intake needs to be restricted, not just other fluids. Option D is not ideal because thirst may not accurately reflect the body's fluid needs in chronic renal failure.
2. A client has undergone renal angiography via the right femoral artery. The nurse determines that the client is experiencing a complication of the procedure upon noting:
- A. Urine output of 40 mL/hr
- B. Blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg
- C. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths/min
- D. Pallor and coolness of the right leg
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Pallor and coolness of the right leg indicate a potential vascular complication following renal angiography, such as hemorrhage, thrombosis, or embolism. These signs suggest impaired circulation in the affected limb. Urine output, blood pressure, and respiratory rate are not typically associated with complications of renal angiography. Complications of this procedure mainly involve allergic reactions to the dye, dye-induced renal damage, and various vascular issues.
3. During nasotracheal suctioning, which of the following observations should be cause for concern to the nurse? Select all that apply.
- A. The client becomes cyanotic.
- B. Secretions are bloody.
- C. The client gags during the procedure.
- D. Clear to opaque secretions are removed.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During nasotracheal suctioning, the client gagging during the procedure is a cause for concern as it can indicate discomfort or potential airway obstruction. Cyanosis, bloody secretions, or the removal of clear to opaque secretions are expected observations that the nurse should monitor for, but gagging indicates a need for immediate intervention to ensure the safety and comfort of the client. Cyanosis and bloody secretions can signify oxygenation issues and potential complications, while the removal of secretions is the goal of the suctioning procedure.
4. The nurse is teaching a patient who will be discharged home from the hospital to take amoxicillin (Amoxil) twice daily for 10 days. Which statement by the nurse is correct?
- A. Discontinue the antibiotic when your temperature returns to normal and your symptoms have improved.
- B. If diarrhea occurs, stop taking the drug immediately and contact your provider.
- C. Stop taking the drug and notify your provider if you develop a rash while taking this drug.
- D. You may save any unused antibiotic to use if your symptoms recur.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Patients who develop signs of allergy, such as rash, should notify their provider before continuing medication therapy. Patients should be counseled to continue taking their antibiotics until completion of the prescribed regimen even when they feel well. Diarrhea is an adverse effect but does not warrant cessation of the drug. Before deciding to stop taking a medication due to a side effect, encourage the patient to contact the provider first. Patients should discard any unused antibiotic.
5. The client is being taught about the best time to plan sexual intercourse in order to conceive. Which information should be provided?
- A. Two weeks before menstruation.
- B. Vaginal mucous discharge is thick.
- C. Low basal temperature.
- D. First thing in the morning.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Two weeks before menstruation.' Ovulation typically occurs 14 days before menstruation begins during a typical 28-day cycle. To increase the chances of conception, sexual intercourse should occur within 24 hours of ovulation. High estrogen levels during ovulation lead to changes in vaginal mucous discharge, making it more 'slippery' and stretchy. Basal temperature rises during ovulation. The timing of intercourse during the day is less significant than ensuring it happens around ovulation. The other options are incorrect because planning intercourse two weeks before menstruation is likely to miss the fertile window, thick vaginal mucous discharge indicates ovulation is approaching, and low basal temperature is not indicative of the fertile period.
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