Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client undergoing peritoneal dialysis. Which of the following findings should be reported immediately to the physician?

• A. Clear dialysate outflow.
• B. Clear dialysate inflow.
• C. Cloudy dialysate outflow.
• D. Increased blood pressure.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cloudy dialysate outflow should be reported immediately to the physician as it is a concerning sign of peritonitis, a severe infection of the peritoneum. Peritonitis is a serious complication of peritoneal dialysis that requires prompt medical intervention to prevent further complications. Clear dialysate outflow and inflow are normal findings in peritoneal dialysis and do not indicate an immediate need for intervention. Increased blood pressure, while important to monitor, is not directly related to peritoneal dialysis and would not be the priority over the potentially life-threatening complication of peritonitis.

2. What is the most common symptom of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?

• A. Heartburn.
• B. Nausea.
• C. Abdominal pain.
• D. Vomiting.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Heartburn. Heartburn is the most common symptom of GERD as it occurs due to the reflux of stomach acid into the esophagus. This leads to a burning sensation in the chest that can worsen after eating, lying down, or bending over. Choice B, Nausea, is not typically the most common symptom of GERD, although it can occur in some cases. Choice C, Abdominal pain, is not a primary symptom of GERD and is more commonly associated with other gastrointestinal conditions. Choice D, Vomiting, is also not the most common symptom of GERD, although it can occur in severe cases or as a result of complications.

3. A client with a history of calcium phosphate urinary stones is being taught by a nurse. Which statements should the nurse include in this client’s dietary teaching? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Limit your intake of food high in animal protein.
• B. Read food labels to help minimize your sodium intake.
• C. A and B
• D. Reduce your intake of milk and other dairy products.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For a client with a history of calcium phosphate urinary stones, it is essential to limit the intake of foods high in animal protein to prevent the formation of stones. Additionally, reducing sodium intake is crucial as high sodium levels can contribute to stone formation. Therefore, choices A and B are correct. Choice D, which suggests reducing intake of milk and other dairy products, is not specifically recommended for calcium phosphate stones. Clients with calcium phosphate stones should focus on limiting animal protein, sodium, and calcium intake. Choices A and B address these dietary modifications, making them the correct options for this client. Choices D, which is not directly related to calcium phosphate stones, is incorrect.

4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is beginning oxygen therapy asks the nurse why the flow rate cannot be increased to more than 2 L/min. The nurse responds that this would be harmful because it could:

• A. Be drying to nasal passages
• B. Decrease the client’s oxygen-based respiratory drive
• C. Increase the risk of pneumonia due to drier air passages
• D. Decrease the client’s carbon dioxide–based respiratory drive

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Increasing the oxygen flow rate beyond 2 L/min for a client with COPD can decrease the client's oxygen-based respiratory drive. In clients with COPD, the natural respiratory drive is based on the level of oxygen instead of carbon dioxide, as seen in healthy individuals. Increasing the oxygen level independently can suppress the drive to breathe, leading to respiratory failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because drying of nasal passages, increased risk of pneumonia due to drier air passages, and decreasing the carbon dioxide-based respiratory drive are not the primary concerns associated with increasing the oxygen flow rate in a client with COPD.

5. What should the nurse do before an echocardiogram for a client who has had a myocardial infarction?

• A. Ensuring no food or drink for 4 hours before the procedure
• B. Obtaining informed consent from the client
• C. Assessing for any history of iodine or shellfish allergies
• D. Informing the client about the painless nature and duration of the procedure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to inform the client that the echocardiogram is a painless procedure that usually takes 30 to 60 minutes to complete. Echocardiography is a noninvasive, risk-free, and pain-free test that uses ultrasound to evaluate the heart's structure and motion. There is no need for special preparation before the procedure. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because imposing nothing-by-mouth status, obtaining informed consent, and assessing for allergies to iodine or shellfish are not necessary steps before an echocardiogram.

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