a 57 year old male client is scheduled to have a stress thallium test the following morning and is npo after midnight at 0130 he is agitated because h
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet

1. A 57-year-old male client is scheduled to have a stress-thallium test the following morning and is NPO after midnight. At 0130, he is agitated because he cannot eat and is demanding food. Which response is best for the nurse to provide to this client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Being direct and explaining to the client that the test requires him to be NPO, is the most therapeutic statement because the nurse is responding to the client's question and providing him the reason why.

2. A nurse obtains a sterile urine specimen from a client’s Foley catheter. After applying a clamp to the drainage tubing distal to the injection port, which action should the nurse take next?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct next action for the nurse to take after applying a clamp to the drainage tubing distal to the injection port is to clean the injection port cap of the catheter drainage tubing with an appropriate antiseptic like povidone-iodine solution or alcohol. This step is crucial to prevent surface contamination before taking the urine sample. Clamping another section of the tube to create a fixed sample section or withdrawing and discarding urine are unnecessary and could lead to potential contamination. Inserting a syringe into the injection port and aspirating the required amount of urine directly from the catheter is the correct method for obtaining the urine sample, but cleaning the injection port cap should precede this step to ensure sterility.

3. A patient who is taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) calls to report developing an all-over rash. What action should the nurse instruct the patient to perform?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient develops an all-over rash while taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX), it may indicate a serious drug reaction. In this case, the patient should stop taking the medication immediately and notify their healthcare provider. Increasing fluid intake (Choice A) may be beneficial in some cases but is not the priority when a serious drug reaction is suspected. Taking diphenhydramine (Choice B) may help with itching but does not address the underlying issue of a potential drug reaction. Continuing the medication (Choice D) is not advisable when a serious adverse reaction such as a widespread rash occurs.

4. A client with stress incontinence is being taught about pelvic muscle exercises. Which statements should be included by the nurse? (Select all that apply.)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct statements to include when teaching a client with stress incontinence about pelvic muscle exercises are that starting and stopping the urine stream involve using pelvic muscles and that tightening pelvic muscles for a slow count of 10 and then relaxing for a slow count of 10 can help strengthen them. It is essential to highlight that pelvic muscle exercises can be performed in various positions, including lying down, sitting up, and standing. This variety in positions helps engage the muscles effectively. Performing these exercises 15 times in each position can aid in strengthening the pelvic floor muscles. Consistent exercise over several weeks typically leads to improved control over urine leakage. Choice C is incorrect because pelvic muscle exercises can be performed in different positions and are not limited to sitting upright with feet on the floor.

5. After a lumbar puncture, into which position does the nurse assist the client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After a lumbar puncture, the client should be positioned flat. This position helps prevent post-procedure spinal headaches and cerebrospinal fluid leakage. Keeping the client flat for up to 12 hours is crucial in minimizing these risks. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because elevating the head of the bed or sitting up can increase the risk of complications by altering the pressure in the spinal canal, potentially leading to headaches and fluid leakage.

Similar Questions

A client is receiving a continuous infusion of normal saline at 125 ml/hour post abdominal surgery. The client is drowsy and complaining of constant abdominal pain and a headache. Urine output is 800 ml over the past 24 hours with a central venous pressure of 15 mmHg. The nurse notes respiratory crackles and bounding central pulse. Vital signs: temperature 101.2 F (38.4 C), heart rate 96 beats/minute, respiration 24 breaths/minute, and blood pressure of 160/90 mmHg. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
Healthcare workers must protect themselves against becoming infected with HIV. The Center for Disease Control has issued guidelines for healthcare workers in relation to protection from HIV. These guidelines include which recommendation?
A young adult client, admitted to the Emergency Department following a motor vehicle collision, is transfused with 4 units of PRBCs (packed red blood cells). The client's pretransfusion hematocrit is 17%. Which hematocrit value should the nurse expect the client to have after all the PRBCs have been transfused?
A patient is diagnosed with Mycoplasma pneumonia. Which antibiotic will the nurse expect the provider to order to treat this infection?
A 68-year-old client on day 2 after hip surgery has no cardiac history but reports having chest heaviness. The first nursing action should be to:

Access More Features

HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses