a 57 year old male client is scheduled to have a stress thallium test the following morning and is npo after midnight at 0130 he is agitated because h
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HESI RN

HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet

1. A 57-year-old male client is scheduled to have a stress-thallium test the following morning and is NPO after midnight. At 0130, he is agitated because he cannot eat and is demanding food. Which response is best for the nurse to provide to this client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Being direct and explaining to the client that the test requires him to be NPO, is the most therapeutic statement because the nurse is responding to the client's question and providing him the reason why.

2. What discharge instruction is most important for a client after a kidney transplant?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After a kidney transplant, it is crucial for the client to adhere to the prescribed immunosuppressive therapy to prevent organ rejection. The client must take medications like corticosteroids and azathioprine (Imuran) regularly for the rest of their life. Using daily reminders is essential to ensure compliance with the medication regimen, as missing doses can increase the risk of organ rejection. Weighing weekly, reporting symptoms of secondary Candidiasis, and stopping cigarette smoking are important aspects of post-transplant care but may not be as critical as ensuring proper intake of immunosuppressants to prevent rejection.

3. A client without a history of respiratory disease has a pulse oximeter in place after surgery. The nurse monitors the pulse oximeter readings to ensure that oxygen saturation remains above:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pulse oximetry is a noninvasive method of continuously monitoring the oxygen saturation of hemoglobin (SaO2). In the absence of underlying respiratory disease, the expected oxygen saturation level is at least 95%. Oxygen saturation levels below 95% may indicate hypoxemia, which can compromise tissue perfusion and oxygen delivery to vital organs. Therefore, maintaining oxygen saturation above 95% is crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation post-surgery. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they represent oxygen saturation levels that are below the expected value for a client without a history of respiratory disease, which should be at least 95%.

4. A client is scheduled for a barium swallow (esophagography) in 2 days. The nurse, providing preprocedure instructions, should tell the client to:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Remove all metal and jewelry before the test.' Before a barium swallow procedure, the client should fast for 8 to 12 hours to ensure the stomach and intestines are empty for optimal visualization. Removing all metal and jewelry is essential to prevent any interference with x-ray imaging. Choice A is incorrect because the client should fast, not eat supper and breakfast, before the test. Choice C is incorrect as diarrhea is not an expected outcome of a barium swallow. Choice D is incorrect as the client should not take any oral medications with milk on the day of the test to ensure accurate test results.

5. After undergoing a renal biopsy, a client reports pain radiating to the front of the abdomen from the biopsy site. What finding should the nurse assess the client for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bleeding. Pain radiating to the front of the abdomen from the renal biopsy site suggests bleeding, which should be promptly assessed and managed. Bleeding can lead to serious complications if not addressed timely. Renal colic (choice B) is associated with kidney stones and typically presents with severe flank pain. Infection at the site (choice C) would more likely present with localized signs such as redness, swelling, warmth, and tenderness. Increased temperature (choice D) alone is not specific to the issue described and may be indicative of various conditions.

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