HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet
1. A 57-year-old male client is scheduled to have a stress-thallium test the following morning and is NPO after midnight. At 0130, he is agitated because he cannot eat and is demanding food. Which response is best for the nurse to provide to this client?
- A. I'm sorry sir, you have a prescription for nothing by mouth from midnight tonight.
- B. I will let you have one cracker, but that is all you can have for the rest of tonight.
- C. What did the healthcare provider tell you about the test you are having tomorrow?
- D. The test you are having tomorrow requires that you have nothing by mouth tonight.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Being direct and explaining to the client that the test requires him to be NPO, is the most therapeutic statement because the nurse is responding to the client's question and providing him the reason why.
2. A client with a history of lung disease is at risk for respiratory acidosis. For which of the following signs and symptoms does the nurse assess this client?
- A. Disorientation and dyspnea
- B. Drowsiness, headache, and tachypnea
- C. Tachypnea, dizziness, and paresthesias
- D. Dysrhythmias and decreased respiratory rate and depth
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Disorientation and dyspnea. In respiratory acidosis, the retention of carbon dioxide leads to an increase in carbonic acid, causing the pH of the blood to decrease. This can result in symptoms such as dyspnea (difficulty breathing) due to hypoxia and disorientation due to the effects of hypercapnia (elevated carbon dioxide levels) on the brain. Choice B is incorrect because while drowsiness and tachypnea can be present in respiratory acidosis, headache is not a common symptom. Choice C is incorrect because dizziness and paresthesias are not typical symptoms of respiratory acidosis. Choice D is incorrect because dysrhythmias and a decreased respiratory rate and depth are more commonly associated with respiratory alkalosis, not respiratory acidosis.
3. The nurse is caring for a patient who has recurrent urinary tract infections. The patient’s current infection is not responding to an antibiotic that has been used successfully several times in the past. The nurse understands that this is most likely due to
- A. acquired bacterial resistance.
- B. cross-resistance.
- C. inherent bacterial resistance.
- D. transferred resistance.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: acquired bacterial resistance. Acquired resistance happens when an organism has been exposed to the antibacterial drug, making it less effective over time. Cross-resistance (B) occurs when resistance to one drug leads to resistance to another. Inherent resistance (C) happens without prior exposure to the drug, meaning the bacteria are naturally resistant. Transferred resistance (D) involves the transfer of resistant genes from one organism to another, contributing to resistance development.
4. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for a patient with left-sided heart failure?
- A. Administering IV fluids.
- B. Administering oxygen.
- C. Administering diuretics.
- D. Administering antihypertensives.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering oxygen is the most appropriate intervention for a patient with left-sided heart failure because it helps improve oxygenation. In left-sided heart failure, the heart struggles to pump oxygen-rich blood to the body, leading to inadequate oxygen supply to tissues. Administering oxygen can help alleviate symptoms of hypoxia and reduce the workload on the heart. IV fluids (Choice A) may exacerbate heart failure by increasing fluid volume, diuretics (Choice C) are used to reduce fluid overload in heart failure, and antihypertensives (Choice D) are more suitable for managing hypertension, which may be a comorbidity in heart failure but are not the primary intervention for left-sided heart failure.
5. What is the primary purpose of administering anticoagulants to a patient with atrial fibrillation?
- A. To reduce blood pressure.
- B. To prevent clot formation.
- C. To prevent arrhythmias.
- D. To reduce inflammation.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The primary purpose of administering anticoagulants to a patient with atrial fibrillation is to prevent clot formation. Patients with atrial fibrillation are at an increased risk of forming blood clots in the heart, which can lead to stroke if they travel to the brain. Anticoagulants help to reduce this risk by inhibiting the clotting process. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect because anticoagulants do not primarily aim to reduce blood pressure, prevent arrhythmias, or reduce inflammation in patients with atrial fibrillation.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access