Nursing Elites

1. A client is scheduled to have an arteriogram. During the arteriogram, the client reports having nausea, tingling, and dyspnea. The nurse's immediate action should be to:

• A. Administer epinephrine.
• B. Inform the physician.
• C. Administer oxygen.
• D. Inform the client that the procedure is almost over.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct immediate action for the nurse to take in this situation is to inform the physician. The symptoms described - nausea, tingling, and dyspnea - indicate a potential allergic reaction to the contrast dye used in the arteriogram. It is crucial to notify the physician promptly so that further assessment and appropriate interventions can be initiated. Administering epinephrine without physician guidance can be dangerous as the physician needs to evaluate the severity of the reaction and determine the necessary treatment. Administering oxygen may be needed but should be done under the physician's direction. Informing the client that the procedure is almost over is not a priority when the client is experiencing symptoms of a possible allergic reaction.

2. In a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), which of the following interventions is most important?

• A. Encouraging the patient to stop smoking.
• B. Administering bronchodilators.
• C. Monitoring oxygen saturation.
• D. Providing nutritional support.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Monitoring oxygen saturation is the most important intervention in a patient with COPD because it helps assess the adequacy of oxygenation. In COPD, patients often have compromised lung function, leading to decreased oxygen levels in the blood. Monitoring oxygen saturation allows healthcare providers to promptly identify and address any potential hypoxemia, which is vital in managing COPD exacerbations. While encouraging the patient to stop smoking (Choice A) is critical for long-term management, monitoring oxygen saturation takes precedence in the immediate care of a COPD patient. Administering bronchodilators (Choice B) and providing nutritional support (Choice D) are important aspects of managing COPD but are secondary to monitoring oxygen saturation, which directly impacts the patient's oxygenation status.

3. A client arrived to the medical-surgical unit 4 hours after a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). A triple-lumen catheter for continuous bladder irrigation with normal saline is infusing, and the nurse observes dark, pink-tinged outflow with blood clots in the tubing and collection bag. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Monitoring catheter drainage
• B. Decreasing the flow rate
• C. Irrigating the catheter manually
• D. Discontinuing infusing the solution

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should choose option C - irrigating the catheter manually. This action can help clear the clots from the catheter and ensure proper bladder drainage. Monitoring catheter drainage (option A) alone may not address the issue of clots obstructing the flow. Decreasing the flow rate (option B) could potentially worsen clot formation. Discontinuing the infusing solution (option D) without addressing the clots first may lead to inadequate irrigation and increase the risk of complications.

4. After undergoing a renal biopsy, a client reports pain radiating to the front of the abdomen from the biopsy site. What finding should the nurse assess the client for?

• A. Bleeding
• B. Renal colic
• C. Infection at the site
• D. Increased temperature

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bleeding. Pain radiating to the front of the abdomen from the renal biopsy site suggests bleeding, which should be promptly assessed and managed. Bleeding can lead to serious complications if not addressed timely. Renal colic (choice B) is associated with kidney stones and typically presents with severe flank pain. Infection at the site (choice C) would more likely present with localized signs such as redness, swelling, warmth, and tenderness. Increased temperature (choice D) alone is not specific to the issue described and may be indicative of various conditions.

5. The nurse is preparing to give trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) to a patient and notes a petechial rash on the patient’s extremities. The nurse will perform which action?

• A. Hold the dose and notify the provider.
• B. Request an order for a blood glucose level.
• C. Request an order for a BUN and creatinine level.
• D. Request an order for diphenhydramine (Benadryl).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient on TMP-SMX presents with a petechial rash, it can be indicative of a severe adverse reaction such as thrombocytopenia or a hypersensitivity reaction. The appropriate action for the nurse to take in this situation is to hold the dose of TMP-SMX and notify the healthcare provider immediately. This is crucial to prevent further administration of a medication that may be causing a serious adverse effect. Requesting a blood glucose level (Choice B) is not relevant in this scenario as the patient's presentation is suggestive of a skin-related issue rather than a glucose-related problem. Similarly, requesting a BUN and creatinine level (Choice C) would not address the immediate concern of a petechial rash and its association with TMP-SMX. Requesting an order for diphenhydramine (Choice D) may help manage itching or mild allergic reactions but is not the priority when a petechial rash is observed, as it may indicate a more severe reaction requiring immediate intervention.

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