HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. A client is scheduled to have an arteriogram. During the arteriogram, the client reports having nausea, tingling, and dyspnea. The nurse's immediate action should be to:
- A. Administer epinephrine.
- B. Inform the physician.
- C. Administer oxygen.
- D. Inform the client that the procedure is almost over.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct immediate action for the nurse to take in this situation is to inform the physician. The symptoms described - nausea, tingling, and dyspnea - indicate a potential allergic reaction to the contrast dye used in the arteriogram. It is crucial to notify the physician promptly so that further assessment and appropriate interventions can be initiated. Administering epinephrine without physician guidance can be dangerous as the physician needs to evaluate the severity of the reaction and determine the necessary treatment. Administering oxygen may be needed but should be done under the physician's direction. Informing the client that the procedure is almost over is not a priority when the client is experiencing symptoms of a possible allergic reaction.
2. The nurse is preparing to administer clarithromycin to a patient. When performing a medication history, the nurse learns that the patient takes warfarin to treat atrial fibrillation. The nurse will perform which action?
- A. Ask the provider if azithromycin may be used instead of clarithromycin.
- B. Obtain an order for continuous cardiovascular monitoring.
- C. Request an order for periodic serum warfarin levels.
- D. Withhold the clarithromycin and notify the provider.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a patient taking warfarin also needs to receive clarithromycin, it is essential to monitor periodic serum warfarin levels. Macrolides, including clarithromycin, can increase serum levels of drugs like warfarin. Monitoring serum drug levels helps ensure that the patient's warfarin dose can be adjusted, if necessary, to maintain therapeutic levels. Asking about using azithromycin instead is not the most appropriate action in this situation, as all macrolides can interact with warfarin. Continuous cardiovascular monitoring is not indicated solely based on the use of clarithromycin. Withholding the clarithromycin without proper assessment could delay necessary treatment and is not the best initial action.
3. A nurse checks the residual volume from a client’s nasogastric tube feeding before administering an intermittent tube feeding and finds 35 mL of gastric contents. What should the nurse do before administering the prescribed 100 mL of formula to the client?
- A. Pour the residual volume into the nasogastric tube through a syringe with the plunger removed
- B. Discard the residual volume properly and record it as output on the client’s fluid balance record
- C. Dilute the residual volume with water and inject it into the nasogastric tube, applying pressure on the plunger
- D. Mix the residual volume with the formula and pour it into the nasogastric tube, using a syringe without a plunger
Correct answer: A
Rationale: After checking the residual feeding contents, the nurse should pour the residual volume back into the stomach by removing the syringe bulb or plunger and then pouring the gastric contents, using the syringe, into the nasogastric tube. This helps ensure that the residual volume is reintroduced into the client's gastrointestinal tract. Option B is incorrect because discarding the residual volume without reinstilling it into the stomach can lead to inaccurate medication administration and potential electrolyte imbalances. Option C is incorrect as diluting the residual volume with water and injecting it under pressure can cause aspiration or discomfort for the client. Option D is incorrect because mixing the residual volume with the formula can alter the prescribed dosage and consistency, potentially affecting the client's nutritional intake and causing complications.
4. The client who has a history of Parkinson's disease for the past 5 years is being assessed by the nurse. What symptoms would this client most likely exhibit?
- A. Loss of short-term memory, facial tics, and grimaces, and constant writhing movements.
- B. Shuffling gait, masklike facial expression, and tremors of the head.
- C. Extreme muscular weakness, easy fatigability, and ptosis.
- D. Numbness of the extremities, loss of balance, and visual disturbances.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Parkinson's Disease, a common neurologic progressive disorder in older clients, is characterized by symptoms such as shuffling gait, masklike facial expression, and tremors of the head and hands. Choice A is incorrect as symptoms like loss of short-term memory, facial tics, and constant writhing movements are not typically associated with Parkinson's disease. Choice C is incorrect as extreme muscular weakness, easy fatigability, and ptosis are more indicative of other conditions like myasthenia gravis. Choice D is incorrect as numbness of the extremities, loss of balance, and visual disturbances are not classic symptoms of Parkinson's disease.
5. A client has undergone insertion of a permanent pacemaker. When developing a discharge teaching plan, the nurse writes a goal of, 'The client will verbalize symptoms of pacemaker failure.' Which symptoms are most important to teach the client?
- A. Facial flushing.
- B. Fever.
- C. Pounding headache.
- D. Feelings of dizziness.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: Feelings of dizziness.' Feelings of dizziness may occur as a result of a decreased heart rate, leading to decreased cardiac output, which can be an indication of pacemaker failure. Teaching the client to recognize symptoms of decreased cardiac output, like dizziness, is crucial for early detection of pacemaker malfunction. Choices A, B, and C are less specific to pacemaker failure and are not commonly associated with this condition. Facial flushing, fever, and pounding headache are not typical signs of pacemaker failure and are not directly related to cardiac output, making them less relevant for teaching the client about pacemaker failure.
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