Nursing Elites

1. A client is scheduled to have an arteriogram. During the arteriogram, the client reports having nausea, tingling, and dyspnea. The nurse's immediate action should be to:

• A. Administer epinephrine.
• B. Inform the physician.
• C. Administer oxygen.
• D. Inform the client that the procedure is almost over.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct immediate action for the nurse to take in this situation is to inform the physician. The symptoms described - nausea, tingling, and dyspnea - indicate a potential allergic reaction to the contrast dye used in the arteriogram. It is crucial to notify the physician promptly so that further assessment and appropriate interventions can be initiated. Administering epinephrine without physician guidance can be dangerous as the physician needs to evaluate the severity of the reaction and determine the necessary treatment. Administering oxygen may be needed but should be done under the physician's direction. Informing the client that the procedure is almost over is not a priority when the client is experiencing symptoms of a possible allergic reaction.

2. What is the most important nursing intervention for a patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees.
• B. Administer diuretics to reduce fluid volume.
• C. Administer corticosteroids to reduce inflammation.
• D. Keep the patient in a supine position.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees is crucial for a patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) because it helps promote venous drainage from the brain, thereby reducing ICP. Keeping the head of the bed elevated helps facilitate cerebral perfusion and can prevent a further increase in ICP. Administering diuretics (Choice B) may be considered in some cases to reduce fluid volume, but it is not the most critical intervention for immediate ICP management. Administering corticosteroids (Choice C) is not typically indicated for managing increased ICP unless there is a specific underlying condition requiring their use. Keeping the patient in a supine position (Choice D) can actually worsen ICP by impeding venous outflow from the brain, making it an incorrect choice for this scenario.

3. The client is scheduled to begin continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD). Which of the following statements by the client indicates that more teaching is required?

• A. I will need to limit my intake of protein.
• B. I can skip a dialysis session if I feel tired.
• C. I should increase my intake of potassium-rich foods.
• D. I can eat whatever I want, as long as I take my medications.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Skipping a dialysis session can lead to serious complications as it disrupts the treatment schedule and can result in the accumulation of waste products and fluid in the body. The client must understand the importance of adhering to the prescribed dialysis regimen to maintain optimal health. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because limiting protein intake, increasing potassium-rich foods, and taking medications do not pose the same risk as skipping dialysis sessions. These aspects are important in the management of peritoneal dialysis but do not outweigh the critical need for regular dialysis sessions to prevent complications.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic renal failure who is receiving hemodialysis. Which of the following findings would indicate a complication of the treatment?

• A. Temperature of 98.6°F (37°C).
• B. Weight gain of 2 lbs (0.9 kg) since the last treatment.
• C. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
• D. Pulse rate of 72 bpm.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Weight gain between dialysis sessions can indicate fluid overload, a common complication in clients with chronic renal failure. This can lead to complications such as hypertension, pulmonary edema, and heart failure. A normal temperature, blood pressure, and pulse rate are expected findings in this scenario and would not typically indicate a complication of hemodialysis treatment.

5. A client receives a prescription for 1 liter of lactated Ringer's intravenously to be infused over 6 hours. How many mL/hr should the nurse program the infusion pump to deliver? (Enter numerical value only. If rounding is needed, round to the nearest whole number.)

• A. 167 mL/hr
• B. 200 mL/hr
• C. 83 mL/hr
• D. 111 mL/hr

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct infusion rate is 167 mL/hr. This is calculated by dividing the total volume (1000 mL) by the total time (6 hours), resulting in 166.67 mL/hr, which should be rounded to the nearest whole number as 167 mL/hr. This calculation ensures a steady infusion rate over the specified time frame. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the correct calculation based on the volume and time provided in the prescription.

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