HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. A client is scheduled to have an arteriogram. During the arteriogram, the client reports having nausea, tingling, and dyspnea. The nurse's immediate action should be to:
- A. Administer epinephrine.
- B. Inform the physician.
- C. Administer oxygen.
- D. Inform the client that the procedure is almost over.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct immediate action for the nurse to take in this situation is to inform the physician. The symptoms described - nausea, tingling, and dyspnea - indicate a potential allergic reaction to the contrast dye used in the arteriogram. It is crucial to notify the physician promptly so that further assessment and appropriate interventions can be initiated. Administering epinephrine without physician guidance can be dangerous as the physician needs to evaluate the severity of the reaction and determine the necessary treatment. Administering oxygen may be needed but should be done under the physician's direction. Informing the client that the procedure is almost over is not a priority when the client is experiencing symptoms of a possible allergic reaction.
2. Which of the following is a common sign of meningitis?
- A. Joint pain.
- B. Severe headache.
- C. Stiff neck.
- D. Coughing up blood.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A stiff neck is a common sign of meningitis due to inflammation of the meninges. Meningitis typically presents with symptoms such as fever, severe headache, nausea, vomiting, sensitivity to light, and a stiff neck. Joint pain (Choice A) is not a typical symptom of meningitis and is more commonly associated with other conditions. While severe headache (Choice B) can be a symptom of meningitis, it is not as specific as a stiff neck. Coughing up blood (Choice D) is not a typical sign of meningitis and may indicate other respiratory or cardiovascular issues.
3. A 49-year-old female client arrives at the clinic for an annual exam and asks the nurse why she becomes excessively diaphoretic and feels warm during nighttime. What is the nurse's best response?
- A. Explain the effects of follicle-stimulating and luteinizing hormones.
- B. Discuss perimenopause and related comfort measures.
- C. Assess lung fields and check for a cough productive of blood-tinged mucus.
- D. Inquire if a fever above 101°F (38.3°C) has occurred in the last 24 hours.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The symptoms described by the client, excessive diaphoresis and feeling warm at night, are characteristic of perimenopause. During this period, lower estrogen levels lead to surges in follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH), resulting in vasomotor instability, night sweats, and hot flashes. Therefore, discussing perimenopause and related comfort measures with the client is essential to provide education and support. Choice A is incorrect because explaining the effects of FSH and LH alone does not directly address the client's current symptoms. Choice C is irrelevant as it focuses on assessing lung fields and cough symptoms, which are not related to the client's menopausal symptoms. Choice D is not the best response as it is more focused on ruling out fever as a cause, which is not typically associated with the symptoms described by the client.
4. Which of the following is an expected finding in a patient with hypothyroidism?
- A. Weight gain.
- B. Weight loss.
- C. Increased appetite.
- D. Diarrhea.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Weight gain is an expected finding in hypothyroidism due to the decreased metabolic rate. Hypothyroidism leads to a slowing down of bodily functions, including metabolism, which can result in weight gain. Weight loss (Choice B) is more commonly associated with hyperthyroidism where there is an increase in metabolic rate. Increased appetite (Choice C) is also more typical of hyperthyroidism as the body is burning energy at a faster rate. Diarrhea (Choice D) is not a typical symptom of hypothyroidism; instead, constipation is more often observed due to the slowing down of the digestive system.
5. After teaching a client with nephrotic syndrome and a normal glomerular filtration rate, the nurse assesses the client’s understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the nutritional therapy for this condition?
- A. I must decrease my intake of fat.
- B. I will increase my intake of protein.
- C. A decreased intake of carbohydrates will be required.
- D. An increased intake of vitamin C is necessary.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In nephrotic syndrome, there is significant renal loss of protein leading to hypoalbuminemia and edema formation. If glomerular filtration is normal or near normal, increased protein loss should be matched by an increased intake of protein. Therefore, the correct statement indicating a correct understanding of the nutritional therapy for this condition is increasing protein intake. Decreasing fat, decreasing carbohydrates, or increasing vitamin C intake is not necessary for addressing the underlying issues associated with nephrotic syndrome.
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