Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic renal failure who is receiving hemodialysis. Which of the following findings would indicate that the client is experiencing a complication of the treatment?

• A. Clear dialysate outflow.
• B. Blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg.
• C. Increased heart rate.
• D. Fatigue.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg during hemodialysis may indicate fluid overload or an ineffective dialysis session, which can lead to complications such as heart failure or pulmonary edema. This finding should be reported promptly for further evaluation and intervention. Clear dialysate outflow is a normal and expected finding during hemodialysis, indicating proper filtration of waste products. Increased heart rate can be a normal compensatory response to hemodialysis due to fluid shifts and should be monitored but does not necessarily indicate a complication. Fatigue is a common symptom in clients with chronic renal failure undergoing hemodialysis and is not specific to complications of the treatment.

2. An older female client has normal saline infusing at 45 mL/hour. She complains of pain at the insertion site of the IV catheter. There is no redness or edema around the IV site. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Determine which IV medications have recently been administered.
• B. Explain that without redness or edema, there is no need to re-start the IV.
• C. Consult with the healthcare provider about the best location to start a new IV.
• D. Convert the IV to a saline lock and continue to monitor the site.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Converting the IV to a saline lock and continuing to monitor the site is the correct action in this scenario. When a client complains of pain at the IV insertion site without redness or edema, it may indicate phlebitis or irritation. Replacing the IV may not be necessary if there are no signs of infection or infiltration. Determining the IV medications administered or consulting with the healthcare provider to start a new IV are not immediate actions required for pain management at the insertion site. Therefore, the most appropriate intervention is to convert the IV to a saline lock and closely observe for any changes or complications.

3. What is the most important content for the nurse to include in discharge teaching for a 51-year-old truck driver who smokes two packs of cigarettes a day, is 30 pounds overweight, and has been diagnosed with a gastric ulcer?

• A. Information about smoking cessation.
• B. Diet instructions for a low-residue diet.
• C. Instructions on a weight-loss program.
• D. The importance of increasing milk in the diet.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Information about smoking cessation. Smoking is a significant risk factor for ulcer formation. It is crucial for the nurse to include smoking cessation information in the discharge teaching to help manage the gastric ulcer and prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are less relevant in this scenario. While diet modifications may be beneficial, addressing smoking cessation takes precedence due to its direct correlation with ulcer development.

4. A client has made an appointment for her annual Papanicolaou test (a.k.a. Pap smear). The nurse who schedules the appointment should tell the client that:

• A. The test cannot be performed while the client is menstruating
• B. Vaginal douching is required at least 24 hours before the test
• C. Spicy foods should not be eaten on the day of the test
• D. The test has absolutely no discomfort associated with it

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A Pap smear cannot be performed with accurate results during menstruation. Menstrual blood may interfere with the test results. Choice B is incorrect as vaginal douching should be avoided for at least 24 hours before the test to prevent altering the cervical cells. Choice C is incorrect as there is no restriction on spicy foods before a Pap smear. Choice D is incorrect as some women may experience mild discomfort during the test, although it is generally well-tolerated.

5. A client who is experiencing respiratory distress is admitted with respiratory acidosis. Which pathophysiological process supports the client's respiratory acidosis?

• A. Carbon dioxide is converted in the kidneys for elimination.
• B. Blood oxygen levels are stimulating the respiratory rate.
• C. Hyperventilation is eliminating carbon dioxide rapidly.
• D. High levels of carbon dioxide have accumulated in the blood.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. High levels of carbon dioxide in the blood are indicative of respiratory acidosis, often due to inadequate ventilation. In respiratory acidosis, there is retention of carbon dioxide (hypercapnia) leading to an increase in carbonic acid levels in the blood, resulting in an acidic pH. Option A is incorrect because carbon dioxide elimination primarily occurs through the lungs, not the kidneys. Option B is incorrect because blood oxygen levels primarily affect the respiratory rate to regulate oxygen levels, not carbon dioxide levels. Option C is incorrect because hyperventilation would lead to a decrease, not an increase, in carbon dioxide levels.

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