Nursing Elites

1. In a patient with chronic kidney disease, which of the following is a common electrolyte imbalance?

• A. Hyperkalemia.
• B. Hypokalemia.
• C. Hypernatremia.
• D. Hyponatremia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hyperkalemia is a common electrolyte imbalance in chronic kidney disease. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys' reduced function leads to the decreased excretion of potassium, resulting in elevated serum potassium levels. This can be dangerous as hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias. Hypokalemia (Choice B) is less common in chronic kidney disease as the impaired kidneys tend to retain potassium. Hypernatremia (Choice C) is more commonly seen in conditions such as dehydration, not primarily in chronic kidney disease. Hyponatremia (Choice D) is also possible in chronic kidney disease but is less common compared to hyperkalemia.

2. A client is to have a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy to remove a large, invasive pituitary tumor. The nurse should instruct the client that the surgery will be performed through an incision in the:

• A. Back of the mouth.
• B. Nose.
• C. Sinus channel below the right eye.
• D. Upper gingival mucosa in the space between the upper gums and lip.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Upper gingival mucosa in the space between the upper gums and lip. A transsphenoidal hypophysectomy involves accessing the pituitary gland through an incision in the upper gingival mucosa, providing direct access to the pituitary gland without external scars. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the surgery is not performed through the back of the mouth, the nose, or the sinus channel below the right eye. It is crucial for the client to understand the specific location of the incision to ensure accurate preoperative education and expectations.

3. A client has undergone renal angiography via the right femoral artery. The nurse determines that the client is experiencing a complication of the procedure upon noting:

• A. Urine output of 40 mL/hr
• B. Blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg
• C. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths/min
• D. Pallor and coolness of the right leg

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pallor and coolness of the right leg indicate a potential vascular complication following renal angiography, such as hemorrhage, thrombosis, or embolism. These signs suggest impaired circulation in the affected limb. Urine output, blood pressure, and respiratory rate are not typically associated with complications of renal angiography. Complications of this procedure mainly involve allergic reactions to the dye, dye-induced renal damage, and various vascular issues.

4. Which client is at greatest risk for coronary artery disease?

• A. A 32-year-old female with mitral valve prolapse who quit smoking 10 years ago.
• B. A 43-year-old male with a family history of CAD and a cholesterol level of 158 (8.8 mmol/L).
• C. A 56-year-old male with an HDL of 60 (3.3 mmol/L) who takes atorvastatin.
• D. A 65-year-old female who is obese with an LDL of 188 (10.4 mmol/L).

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The 65-year-old female who is obese with a high LDL level of 188 (10.4 mmol/L) is at the greatest risk for coronary artery disease. Obesity and high LDL cholesterol levels are significant risk factors for developing coronary artery disease. While factors like mitral valve prolapse (choice A) and a family history of CAD (choice B) can contribute to the risk, they are not as significant as obesity and high LDL levels. Choice C, a 56-year-old male with high HDL and taking atorvastatin, is actually at lower risk due to the high HDL levels and being on statin therapy, which helps reduce cholesterol levels and lower the risk of coronary artery disease.

5. The nurse is caring for a patient who is taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX). The nurse learns that the patient takes an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. To monitor for drug interactions, the nurse will request an order for which laboratory test(s)?

• A. A complete blood count
• B. BUN and creatinine
• C. Electrolytes
• D. Glucose

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'C. Electrolytes.' When trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) is taken with an ACE inhibitor, there is an increased risk of hyperkalemia due to the combined effects on potassium levels. Monitoring electrolytes, specifically potassium, is essential to detect and manage this potential drug interaction. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while they are important tests in general patient care, they are not specifically indicated to monitor for the drug interaction between TMP-SMX and ACE inhibitors.

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