HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. The client with chronic renal failure asks why a low-protein diet is necessary. Which of the following is the best response by the nurse?
- A. It reduces the workload on your kidneys.
- B. It helps prevent the buildup of waste products.
- C. It helps maintain electrolyte balance in your body.
- D. It helps prevent dehydration.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A low-protein diet is necessary for clients with chronic renal failure to help prevent the buildup of waste products, such as urea, in the body. Choice A is incorrect as the primary reason for a low-protein diet is to manage waste product accumulation rather than reducing the workload on the kidneys. Choice C is incorrect as electrolyte balance is typically managed through dietary restrictions beyond protein intake. Choice D is incorrect as preventing dehydration is not the primary purpose of a low-protein diet in chronic renal failure.
2. A client in the intensive care unit is started on continuous venovenous hemofiltration (CVVH). Which finding should prompt immediate action by the nurse?
- A. Blood pressure of 76/58 mm Hg
- B. Sodium level of 138 mEq/L
- C. Potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L
- D. Pulse rate of 90 beats/min
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blood pressure of 76/58 mm Hg. In a client undergoing continuous venovenous hemofiltration (CVVH), hypotension can be a significant concern if replacement fluid does not adequately maintain blood pressure. The nurse should take immediate action to address hypotension to prevent further complications. The sodium level of 138 mEq/L is within normal range, and a potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L, while slightly elevated, may be expected in a patient with acute kidney injury. A pulse rate of 90 beats/min falls within the normal range and does not typically require immediate intervention in this context.
3. The patient is taking hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL) and digoxin (Lanoxin). Which potential electrolyte imbalance will the nurse monitor for in this patient?
- A. Hypermagnesemia
- B. Hypernatremia
- C. Hypocalcemia
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypokalemia. Thiazide diuretics like hydrochlorothiazide can cause hypokalemia. Hypokalemia enhances the effects of digoxin, leading to digoxin toxicity. Thiazides can also cause hypercalcemia. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Hypermagnesemia is not typically associated with hydrochlorothiazide use. Hypernatremia and hypocalcemia are not the primary electrolyte imbalances to monitor for in this scenario.
4. The client is scheduled to begin continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD). Which of the following statements by the client indicates that more teaching is required?
- A. I will need to limit my intake of protein.
- B. I can skip a dialysis session if I feel tired.
- C. I should increase my intake of potassium-rich foods.
- D. I can eat whatever I want, as long as I take my medications.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Skipping a dialysis session can lead to serious complications as it disrupts the treatment schedule and can result in the accumulation of waste products and fluid in the body. The client must understand the importance of adhering to the prescribed dialysis regimen to maintain optimal health. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because limiting protein intake, increasing potassium-rich foods, and taking medications do not pose the same risk as skipping dialysis sessions. These aspects are important in the management of peritoneal dialysis but do not outweigh the critical need for regular dialysis sessions to prevent complications.
5. A male client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is refusing to take his medication and has missed two hemodialysis appointments. What is the best initial action for the nurse?
- A. Discuss what the treatment regimen means to him.
- B. Refer the client to a mental health nurse practitioner.
- C. Reschedule the appointments to another date and time.
- D. Discuss the option of peritoneal dialysis.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best initial action for the nurse in this scenario is to have a discussion with the client about what the treatment regimen means to him. It is important to assess the client's anxiety, coping styles, and acceptance of the required treatment for CKD. The client may be in denial of the diagnosis or may have concerns that need to be addressed. While rescheduling hemodialysis appointments could be helpful, referring the client to a mental health nurse practitioner or discussing peritoneal dialysis are not the most appropriate first steps. Understanding the client's perspective and concerns is crucial before exploring other interventions.
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