HESI RN
Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet
1. A client with chronic heart failure is being taught by a nurse about the importance of daily weights. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Weigh yourself at the same time every day.
- B. Use the same scale for weighing each time.
- C. Record your weight in a journal or log.
- D. Report any weight gain of more than 2 to 3 pounds in a day.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with chronic heart failure is to report any weight gain of more than 2 to 3 pounds in a day. This weight gain may indicate fluid retention, which is a critical sign of worsening heart failure. Weighing at the same time every day and using the same scale for consistency are good practices, but the crucial action is to promptly report significant weight gain, as stated in option D. Recording the weight in a journal or log can be helpful for tracking trends, but immediate reporting of weight gain is essential for timely intervention in heart failure management. Therefore, option D is the most appropriate instruction for this client.
2. To reduce the risk of pulmonary complications for a client with ALS, which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Perform chest physiotherapy
- B. Teach the client breathing exercises
- C. Initiate passive range of motion exercises
- D. Establish a regular bladder routine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Performing chest physiotherapy is the most appropriate intervention to reduce the risk of pulmonary complications in clients with ALS. Chest physiotherapy helps mobilize and clear respiratory secretions, improving lung function and reducing the risk of complications such as pneumonia. Teaching breathing exercises (Choice B) may be beneficial for some clients, but chest physiotherapy is more specifically targeted at managing pulmonary issues in ALS. Initiating passive range of motion exercises (Choice C) and establishing a regular bladder routine (Choice D) are important interventions in ALS care but are not directly related to reducing the risk of pulmonary complications.
3. The patient is receiving a high dose of intravenous azithromycin to treat an infection and taking acetaminophen for pain. The nurse should expect to review which lab values when monitoring for this drug’s side effects?
- A. Complete blood counts
- B. Electrolytes
- C. Liver enzymes
- D. Urinalysis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a patient is receiving a high dose of intravenous azithromycin, which is a macrolide antibiotic, in combination with acetaminophen, a potentially hepatotoxic drug, the nurse should monitor liver enzymes. High doses of macrolides when taken with hepatotoxic drugs like acetaminophen can lead to hepatotoxicity. Reviewing liver enzymes helps in early detection of liver damage. Complete blood counts (Choice A) are not typically affected by azithromycin or acetaminophen. Electrolytes (Choice B) are not directly impacted by these medications. Urinalysis (Choice D) is not specifically indicated for monitoring the side effects of azithromycin and acetaminophen combination therapy.
4. A client who has just undergone bronchoscopy was returned to the nursing unit 1 hour ago. With which assessment finding is the nurse most concerned?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 97%
- B. Equal breath sounds in both lungs
- C. Absence of cough and gag reflexes
- D. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The absence of cough and gag reflexes is the most concerning finding for the nurse because it indicates a lack of protective airway reflexes, putting the client at risk of aspiration. Oxygen saturation of 97% is within the normal range and indicates adequate oxygenation. Equal breath sounds in both lungs are a positive finding, indicating no significant abnormalities. A respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min is also within the normal range and does not raise immediate concerns. Therefore, the absence of cough and gag reflexes poses the highest risk to the client's airway safety.
5. The healthcare provider is assessing an older Caucasian male who has a history of peripheral vascular disease. The healthcare provider observes that the man's left great toe is black. The discoloration is probably a result of:
- A. Atrophy.
- B. Contraction.
- C. Gangrene.
- D. Rubor.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Gangrene refers to dead, blackened tissue, often a result of chronic ischemia in clients with peripheral vascular disease. Atrophy (Choice A) is the wasting away or decrease in size of tissue or organ. Contraction (Choice B) refers to the shortening or tightening of a muscle or other body part. Rubor (Choice D) is a red discoloration of the skin, often associated with inflammation or poor circulation, but not typically presenting as blackening like gangrene.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access