Nursing Elites

1. A client who had a C-5 spinal cord injury 2 years ago is admitted to the emergency department with the diagnosis of autonomic dysreflexia secondary to a full bladder. Which assessment finding should the nurse expect this client to exhibit?

• A. Complaints of chest pain and shortness of breath
• B. Hypotension and venous pooling in the extremities
• C. Profuse diaphoresis and severe, pounding headache
• D. Pain and burning sensation upon urination and hematuria

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia is a life-threatening condition commonly seen in clients with spinal cord injuries above the T6 level. It is characterized by a sudden onset of excessively high blood pressure due to a noxious stimulus below the level of injury, often a distended bladder. The exaggerated sympathetic response leads to vasoconstriction, resulting in symptoms such as profuse diaphoresis (sweating) and a severe, pounding headache. These symptoms are the body's attempt to lower blood pressure. Complaints of chest pain and shortness of breath (Choice A) are not typical findings in autonomic dysreflexia. Hypotension and venous pooling (Choice B) are opposite manifestations of autonomic dysreflexia, which is characterized by hypertension. Pain and burning sensation upon urination and hematuria (Choice D) are indicative of a urinary tract infection and not specific to autonomic dysreflexia.

2. A client in the emergency department is severely dehydrated and is prescribed 3 L of intravenous fluid over 6 hours. At what rate (mL/hr) should the nurse set the intravenous pump to infuse the fluids? (Record your answer using a whole number.)

• A. 500 mL/hr
• B. 400 mL/hr
• C. 550 mL/hr
• D. 600 mL/hr

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the rate of the intravenous pump, divide the total volume of fluid (3 L = 3000 mL) by the total time in hours (6 hours), which equals 500 mL/hr. The correct answer is A. Choice B (400 mL/hr) is incorrect as it would result in a slower infusion rate. Choice C (550 mL/hr) and Choice D (600 mL/hr) are incorrect as they would result in a faster infusion rate, exceeding the prescribed amount of fluid to be infused over 6 hours.

3. The nurse is taking the vital signs of a client after hemodialysis. Blood pressure is 110/58 mm Hg, pulse 66 beats/min, and temperature is 99.8°F (37.6°C). What is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

• A. Administer fluids to increase blood pressure.
• B. Check the white blood cell count.
• C. Monitor the client’s temperature.
• D. Connect the client to an electrocardiographic (ECG) monitor.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After hemodialysis, it is crucial to monitor the client's temperature because the dialysate is warmed to increase diffusion and prevent hypothermia. The client's temperature might reflect the temperature of the dialysate. There is no need to administer fluids to increase blood pressure as the vital signs are within normal limits. Checking the white blood cell count or connecting the client to an ECG monitor is not necessary based on the information provided.

4. A client with chronic renal failure is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen) to treat anemia. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hypertension.
• B. Hypotension.
• C. Infection.
• D. Edema.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Epoetin alfa (Epogen) is a medication used to treat anemia in clients with chronic renal failure. One common side effect of this medication is hypertension. Epoetin alfa stimulates red blood cell production, which can lead to an increase in blood pressure. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for signs and symptoms of hypertension while on this medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypotension is not typically associated with epoetin alfa administration. Infection is not a direct side effect of epoetin alfa. Edema is also not a common side effect of this medication.

5. A client who is postmenopausal and has had two episodes of bacterial urethritis in the last 6 months asks, “I never have urinary tract infections. Why is this happening now?” How should the nurse respond?

• A. Your immune system becomes less effective as you age.
• B. Low estrogen levels can make the tissue more susceptible to infection.
• C. You should be more careful with your personal hygiene in this area.
• D. It is likely that you have an untreated sexually transmitted disease.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Low estrogen levels in postmenopausal women decrease moisture and secretions in the perineal area, causing tissue changes that predispose them to infection, including urethritis. This is a common reason for urethritis in postmenopausal women. While immune function does decrease with aging and sexually transmitted diseases can cause urethritis, the most likely reason in this case is the low estrogen levels. Personal hygiene practices are usually not a significant factor in the development of urethritis.

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