Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing for intershift report when a nurse’s aide pulls an emergency call light in a client’s room. Upon answering the light, the nurse finds a client who returned from surgery earlier in the day experiencing tachycardia and tachypnea. The client’s blood pressure is 88/60 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Calling the physician
• B. Checking the hourly urine output
• C. Checking the IV site for infiltration
• D. Placing the client in a modified Trendelenburg position

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client is exhibiting signs of shock, indicated by tachycardia, tachypnea, and hypotension. Placing the client in a modified Trendelenburg position is the initial action to improve venous return, cardiac output, and subsequently increase blood pressure. This position helps redistribute blood flow to vital organs. Calling the physician should follow once immediate intervention has been initiated. Checking the hourly urine output and IV site are important assessments but are secondary to addressing the client's hemodynamic instability and potential for shock.

2. A nurse plans care for an older adult client. Which interventions should the nurse include in this client’s plan of care to promote kidney health? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Ensure adequate fluid intake.
• B. Leave the bathroom light on at night.
• C. Encourage use of the toilet every 6 hours.
• D. A & B

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct interventions to promote kidney health in an older adult client include ensuring adequate fluid intake to maintain hydration and leaving the bathroom light on at night to promote safe ambulation. Adequate hydration supports kidney function and helps prevent urinary tract infections. Encouraging the use of the toilet every 6 hours is not specific to kidney health and may not be individualized to the client's needs. Providing thorough perineal care after each voiding is important for hygiene but not directly related to promoting kidney health. Assessing for urinary retention and urinary tract infections is crucial but falls under assessment rather than interventions for promoting kidney health specifically.

3. A client who experienced partial-thickness burns involving over 50% body surface area (BSA) 2 weeks ago has several open wounds and develops watery diarrhea. The client's blood pressure is 82/40 mmHg, and temperature is 96°F (36.6°C). Which action is most important for the nurse to take?

• A. Increase the room temperature.
• B. Assess the oxygen saturation.
• C. Continue to monitor vital signs.
• D. Notify the rapid response team.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is presenting with signs of sepsis, such as hypotension, hypothermia, and a recent history of partial-thickness burns with open wounds. The development of watery diarrhea further raises suspicion for sepsis. With a blood pressure of 82/40 mmHg and a low temperature of 96°F (36.6°C), the nurse should recognize the potential for septic shock. Notifying the rapid response team is crucial in this situation as the client requires immediate intervention and management to prevent deterioration and address the underlying septic process. Increasing the room temperature (Choice A) is not the priority as the low body temperature is likely due to systemic vasodilation and not environmental factors. While assessing oxygen saturation (Choice B) is important, the client's hypotension and hypothermia take precedence. Continuing to monitor vital signs (Choice C) alone is insufficient given the critical condition of the client and the need for prompt action to address the sepsis and potential septic shock.

4. During an assessment on a patient brought to the emergency department for treatment for dehydration, the nurse notes a respiratory rate of 26 breaths/minute, a heart rate of 110 beats/minute, a blood pressure of 86/50 mm Hg, and a temperature of 39.5° C. The patient becomes dizzy when transferred from the wheelchair to a bed. The nurse observes cool, clammy skin. Which diagnosis does the nurse suspect?

• A. Fluid volume deficit (FVD)
• B. Fluid volume excess (FVE)
• C. Mild extracellular fluid (ECF) deficit
• D. Renal failure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should suspect Fluid Volume Deficit (FVD) in this patient. Signs of FVD include elevated temperature, tachycardia, tachypnea, hypotension, orthostatic hypotension, and cool, clammy skin, which align with the patient's assessment findings. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Fluid Volume Excess (FVE) typically presents with bounding pulses, elevated blood pressure, dyspnea, and crackles. Mild extracellular fluid (ECF) deficit usually manifests as thirst. Renal failure commonly results in Fluid Volume Excess (FVE) rather than Fluid Volume Deficit (FVD).

5. The client with diabetes mellitus is being taught how to prevent or delay chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which client statements indicate a lack of understanding of the teaching? (Select all that apply.)

• A. I can continue to take an aspirin every 4 to 8 hours for my pain.
• B. My weight should be maintained at a body mass index of 30.
• C. Smoking should be stopped as soon as possible.
• D. A & B

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Both statements A and B indicate a lack of understanding of CKD prevention. Taking aspirin every 4 to 8 hours can lead to kidney damage, and maintaining a body mass index (BMI) of 30 is considered overweight, which can increase the risk of developing CKD. Statement C, on the other hand, correctly addresses smoking cessation, which is crucial in preventing CKD. Therefore, choices A and B are incorrect as they do not align with CKD prevention strategies, making option D the correct choice.

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