Nursing Elites

1. Four hours following surgical repair of a compound fracture of the right ulna, the nurse is unable to palpate the client's right radial pulse. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider of the finding immediately.
• B. Complete a neurovascular assessment of the right hand.
• C. Elevate the client's right hand on one or two pillows.
• D. Measure the client's blood pressure and apical pulse rate.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Completing a neurovascular assessment of the right hand is the priority in this situation. This assessment will help determine the circulation, sensation, and movement of the affected limb, ensuring there are no complications like compartment syndrome or impaired perfusion. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately (Choice A) might be necessary but should come after assessing the client's neurovascular status. Elevating the client's right hand (Choice C) can be helpful in some cases but should not precede a neurovascular assessment. Measuring the client's blood pressure and apical pulse rate (Choice D) is important but not the priority when assessing a potential vascular compromise in the limb.

2. In a patient with asthma, which of the following is a primary goal of treatment?

• A. Improving oxygenation.
• B. Reducing inflammation.
• C. Improving airflow.
• D. Reducing airway constriction.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary goal in the treatment of asthma is to improve airflow. Asthma is characterized by airway inflammation, constriction, and increased mucus production, leading to airflow limitation. Improving airflow helps ensure adequate oxygenation and reduces symptoms. While reducing inflammation and airway constriction are important aspects of asthma management, the primary goal is to optimize airflow to improve respiratory function and quality of life.

3. A nurse performing nasopharyngeal suctioning suddenly notes the presence of bloody secretions. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Continue suctioning to remove the blood
• B. Check the degree of suction being applied
• C. Encourage the client to cough out the bloody secretions
• D. Remove the suction catheter from the client’s nose and begin vigorous suctioning through the mouth

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the degree of suction being applied (Choice B). When bloody secretions are encountered during nasopharyngeal suctioning, it is crucial to assess the situation promptly. Checking the degree of suction being applied is the first step as excessive suction pressure may be causing trauma and bleeding. Adjusting the suction pressure may be necessary to prevent further harm. Continuing suctioning to remove the blood (Choice A) or performing vigorous suctioning through the mouth (Choice D) can lead to increased trauma and worsen bleeding. Encouraging the client to cough out the bloody secretions (Choice C) is not appropriate since the client undergoing suctioning is typically unable to expectorate secretions. Therefore, the priority is to check and adjust the suction settings to ensure safe and effective suctioning.

4. A client with renal insufficiency and a low red blood cell count asks, 'Is my anemia related to the renal insufficiency?' How should the nurse respond?

• A. Red blood cells produce erythropoietin, which increases blood flow to the kidneys.
• B. Your anemia and renal insufficiency are related to inadequate vitamin D and a loss of bone density.
• C. Erythropoietin is usually released from the kidneys and stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow.
• D. Kidney insufficiency inhibits active transportation of red blood cells throughout the blood.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Erythropoietin is produced in the kidney and is released in response to decreased oxygen tension in the renal blood supply. Erythropoietin stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow. Anemia in renal insufficiency is often due to decreased erythropoietin production. Anemia and renal insufficiency are not manifestations of vitamin D deficiency as stated in choice B. Choice A is incorrect as erythropoietin does not increase blood flow to the kidneys. Choice D is incorrect because kidney insufficiency does not inhibit active transportation of red blood cells throughout the blood; rather, it affects erythropoietin production and subsequent red blood cell formation.

5. Which of the following symptoms would a healthcare provider expect to find in a patient with hyperkalemia?

• A. Muscle cramps.
• B. Hypertension.
• C. Bradycardia.
• D. Tachycardia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Tachycardia is the correct symptom to expect in a patient with hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia, or high potassium levels in the blood, can affect the electrical activity of the heart. Increased potassium levels can lead to changes in the heart's rhythm, potentially causing tachycardia (rapid heart rate) or other cardiac arrhythmias. Muscle cramps (choice A) are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. Hypertension (choice B) is not a common symptom of hyperkalemia; in fact, high potassium levels can sometimes cause low blood pressure. Bradycardia (choice C), or a slow heart rate, is usually not a primary symptom of hyperkalemia; instead, hyperkalemia tends to be associated with faster heart rates or arrhythmias.

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