Nursing Elites

1. Four hours following surgical repair of a compound fracture of the right ulna, the nurse is unable to palpate the client's right radial pulse. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider of the finding immediately.
• B. Complete a neurovascular assessment of the right hand.
• C. Elevate the client's right hand on one or two pillows.
• D. Measure the client's blood pressure and apical pulse rate.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Completing a neurovascular assessment of the right hand is the priority in this situation. This assessment will help determine the circulation, sensation, and movement of the affected limb, ensuring there are no complications like compartment syndrome or impaired perfusion. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately (Choice A) might be necessary but should come after assessing the client's neurovascular status. Elevating the client's right hand (Choice C) can be helpful in some cases but should not precede a neurovascular assessment. Measuring the client's blood pressure and apical pulse rate (Choice D) is important but not the priority when assessing a potential vascular compromise in the limb.

2. The healthcare provider is assessing the client's use of medications. Which of the following medications may cause a complication with the treatment plan of a client with diabetes?

• A. Aspirin
• B. Steroids
• C. Sulfonylureas
• D. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Steroids. Steroids can induce hyperglycemia, complicating diabetes management by raising blood sugar levels. Aspirin is not typically associated with causing complications in diabetic clients. Sulfonylureas are oral antidiabetic medications that can lower blood sugar levels and are commonly used in diabetes management, making them beneficial rather than harmful. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are medications often prescribed to manage hypertension in diabetic clients and do not typically interfere with diabetes treatment plans.

3. Which of the following is a priority intervention for a patient with suspected sepsis?

• A. Administering antibiotics.
• B. Administering IV fluids.
• C. Administering antipyretics.
• D. Monitoring blood cultures.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Monitoring blood cultures is a crucial intervention in suspected sepsis because it helps identify the causative organism, which is essential for guiding appropriate antibiotic therapy. Administering antibiotics (Choice A) is important but should be guided by blood culture results. Administering IV fluids (Choice B) is also essential to support hemodynamic stability in sepsis. Administering antipyretics (Choice C) may help reduce fever but is not a priority compared to identifying the causative organism through blood cultures.

4. A client is scheduled for an arteriogram. The nurse should explain to the client that the arteriogram will confirm the diagnosis of occlusive arterial disease by:

• A. Showing the location of the obstruction and the collateral circulation.
• B. Scanning the affected extremity and identifying the areas of volume changes.
• C. Using ultrasound to estimate the velocity changes in the blood vessels.
• D. Determining how long the client can walk.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Showing the location of the obstruction and the collateral circulation. An arteriogram is a diagnostic procedure that involves injecting a contrast agent to visualize the blood vessels and identify the location of any obstructions. This helps confirm the diagnosis of occlusive arterial disease by showing where the blockage is located and how collateral circulation is compensating for the reduced blood flow. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because scanning the extremity, estimating velocity changes with ultrasound, or determining walking distance are not the primary purposes of an arteriogram in diagnosing occlusive arterial disease.

5. After a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy, the nurse should assess the client for:

• A. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak.
• B. Fluctuating blood glucose levels.
• C. Cushing's syndrome.
• D. Cardiac arrhythmias.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Following a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy, assessing the client for a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak is crucial due to the risk of this serious complication. A CSF leak can lead to infection and increased intracranial pressure, which must be promptly identified and managed to prevent further complications. Fluctuating blood glucose levels (Choice B) are not directly associated with a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. Cushing's syndrome (Choice C) is a condition related to prolonged exposure to high levels of cortisol and is not a common immediate concern post-transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. Cardiac arrhythmias (Choice D) are not typically a direct complication of this surgical procedure, making it a less relevant concern compared to a CSF leak.

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