HESI RN
Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. Upon arrival of a client transferred to the surgical unit, what should the nurse plan to do first?
- A. Assess the patency of the airway
- B. Check tubes and drains for patency
- C. Check the dressing for bleeding
- D. Assess the vital signs to compare them with preoperative measurements
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The initial action for the nurse upon the arrival of a client to the surgical unit is to assess the patency of the airway. This step takes priority to ensure that the client has a clear airway for adequate breathing. Checking tubes and drains for patency, inspecting the dressing for bleeding, and assessing vital signs to compare with preoperative measurements are important subsequent steps in the assessment process. However, ensuring the airway is patent is the immediate priority to maintain the client's respiratory function and overall well-being.
2. The client with chronic renal failure asks why a low-protein diet is necessary. Which of the following is the best response by the nurse?
- A. It reduces the workload on your kidneys.
- B. It helps prevent the buildup of waste products.
- C. It helps maintain electrolyte balance in your body.
- D. It helps prevent dehydration.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A low-protein diet is necessary for clients with chronic renal failure to help prevent the buildup of waste products, such as urea, in the body. Choice A is incorrect as the primary reason for a low-protein diet is to manage waste product accumulation rather than reducing the workload on the kidneys. Choice C is incorrect as electrolyte balance is typically managed through dietary restrictions beyond protein intake. Choice D is incorrect as preventing dehydration is not the primary purpose of a low-protein diet in chronic renal failure.
3. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic renal failure who is receiving hemodialysis. Which of the following findings would indicate that the client is experiencing a complication of the treatment?
- A. Clear dialysate outflow.
- B. Blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg.
- C. Increased heart rate.
- D. Fatigue.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg during hemodialysis may indicate fluid overload or an ineffective dialysis session, which can lead to complications such as heart failure or pulmonary edema. This finding should be reported promptly for further evaluation and intervention. Clear dialysate outflow is a normal and expected finding during hemodialysis, indicating proper filtration of waste products. Increased heart rate can be a normal compensatory response to hemodialysis due to fluid shifts and should be monitored but does not necessarily indicate a complication. Fatigue is a common symptom in clients with chronic renal failure undergoing hemodialysis and is not specific to complications of the treatment.
4. A client who underwent surgery and experienced significant blood loss is being cared for by a nurse. Which findings by the nurse should prompt immediate action to prevent acute kidney injury? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Urine output of 100 mL in 4 hours
- B. Large amount of sediment in the urine
- C. A & B
- D. Amber, odorless urine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse must monitor for signs of acute kidney injury in a postoperative client who had major blood loss. Low urine output, presence of sediment in the urine, and low blood pressure should raise concerns and be reported to the healthcare provider promptly. Postoperatively, assessing urine characteristics is crucial. Sediment, hematuria, and urine output less than 0.5 mL/kg/hour for 3 to 4 hours should be reported. While a urine output of 100 mL in 4 hours is low, it should be compared to the recommended 0.5 mL/kg/hour over a longer period. Perfusion to the kidneys is a priority, hence the importance of addressing low blood pressure. Amber, odorless urine is considered normal and does not indicate an immediate concern for acute kidney injury, unlike low urine output and presence of sediment.
5. A client with a chest tube attached to a closed drainage system has undergone a chest x-ray, which revealed that the affected lung is fully reexpanded. The nurse anticipates that the next assessment of the chest tube system will reveal:
- A. No fluctuation in the water seal chamber
- B. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
- C. Increased drainage in the collection chamber
- D. Continuous gentle suction in the suction control chamber
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When the client's lung is fully reexpanded, the chest tube drainage system will no longer be actively draining, and there will be no fluctuation in the water seal chamber. Option B, continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber, indicates an air leak in the system, which is not expected when the lung is fully expanded. Option C, increased drainage in the collection chamber, would not be expected when the lung is reexpanded as there should be minimal to no drainage. Option D, continuous gentle suction in the suction control chamber, would not be appropriate when the lung is fully reexpanded and the chest tube is typically on a water seal system at this point to promote reexpansion and prevent air from entering the pleural space.
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