HESI RN
Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. Upon arrival of a client transferred to the surgical unit, what should the nurse plan to do first?
- A. Assess the patency of the airway
- B. Check tubes and drains for patency
- C. Check the dressing for bleeding
- D. Assess the vital signs to compare them with preoperative measurements
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The initial action for the nurse upon the arrival of a client to the surgical unit is to assess the patency of the airway. This step takes priority to ensure that the client has a clear airway for adequate breathing. Checking tubes and drains for patency, inspecting the dressing for bleeding, and assessing vital signs to compare with preoperative measurements are important subsequent steps in the assessment process. However, ensuring the airway is patent is the immediate priority to maintain the client's respiratory function and overall well-being.
2. After a myocardial infarction, why is the hospitalized client taught to move the legs while resting in bed?
- A. Prepare the client for ambulation.
- B. Promote urinary and intestinal elimination.
- C. Prevent thrombophlebitis and blood clot formation.
- D. Decrease the likelihood of pressure ulcer formation.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Moving the legs helps prevent thrombophlebitis and blood clot formation by promoting venous return in clients on bed rest. This prevents stasis and clot formation in the lower extremities. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the primary goal of moving the legs is to prevent thrombophlebitis and blood clot formation, rather than preparing for ambulation, promoting elimination, or decreasing pressure ulcer formation. Ambulation preparation involves different exercises, urinary and intestinal elimination are not directly related to leg movements, and pressure ulcer prevention is more related to repositioning and skin care.
3. A client is vomiting. For which acid-base imbalance does the nurse assess the client?
- A. Metabolic acidosis
- B. Metabolic alkalosis
- C. Respiratory acidosis
- D. Respiratory alkalosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client who is vomiting, the loss of gastric fluid containing hydrochloric acid can lead to metabolic alkalosis. Metabolic alkalosis is caused by the loss of acids such as hydrochloric acid from the body. Therefore, in this scenario, the nurse should assess the client for metabolic alkalosis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because vomiting does not typically lead to metabolic acidosis, respiratory acidosis, or respiratory alkalosis.
4. A client with elevated levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) triggers the release of this hormone due to which disorder?
- A. Pneumonia
- B. Dehydration
- C. Renal failure
- D. Edema
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) increases tubular permeability to water, causing more water absorption into the capillaries. ADH is released in response to a rising extracellular fluid osmolarity, such as in dehydration. Pneumonia, renal failure, and edema do not typically lead to the release of ADH. Pneumonia is an inflammatory lung condition, renal failure affects kidney function, and edema is the accumulation of excess fluid in the tissues, none of which directly stimulate the release of ADH.
5. A healthcare professional reviews the allergy list of a client scheduled for an intravenous urography. Which client allergy should prompt urgent contact with the healthcare provider?
- A. Seafood
- B. Penicillin
- C. Bee stings
- D. Red food dye
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Clients with seafood allergies should alert healthcare professionals to urgently contact the healthcare provider before an intravenous urography. The standard dyes used in this procedure can trigger severe allergic reactions in individuals with seafood allergies. Penicillin, bee stings, and red food dye allergies do not pose a direct threat during intravenous urography, making them less critical for immediate intervention.
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