Nursing Elites

1. A nursing assistant is measuring the blood pressure (BP) of a hypertensive client while a nurse observes. Which action on the part of the assistant would interfere with accurate measurement and prompt the nurse to intervene? Select all that apply.

• A. Measuring the BP after the client has sat quietly for 5 minutes
• B. Having the client sit with the arm bared and supported at heart level
• C. Using a cuff with a rubber bladder that encircles less than 80% of the limb
• D. Measuring the BP after the client reports that he just drank a cup of coffee

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To ensure accurate blood pressure (BP) measurement, the cuff used should have a rubber bladder that encircles at least 80% of the limb being measured. This ensures proper compression and accurate readings. Choices A and B are correct practices as it is recommended to measure BP after the client has sat quietly for 5 minutes and to have the client sit with the arm bared and supported at heart level. Choice D is also a correct reason for intervention as the client should not have consumed caffeine or smoked tobacco within 30 minutes before BP measurement, as it can affect the accuracy of the reading.

2. What is the most common cause of peptic ulcers?

• A. Helicobacter pylori infection
• B. NSAID use
• C. Excessive alcohol consumption
• D. Stress

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Helicobacter pylori infection is the most common cause of peptic ulcers. This bacterium can weaken the protective mucous coating of the stomach and duodenum, allowing acid to get through to the sensitive lining beneath. NSAID use (Choice B) can also cause peptic ulcers by disrupting the stomach's mucosal barrier. Excessive alcohol consumption (Choice C) and stress (Choice D) can exacerbate and contribute to ulcer formation but are not the primary cause.

3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presented with shortness of breath. Oxygen therapy was started at 2 liters/minute via nasal cannula. The arterial blood gases (ABGs) after treatment were pH 7.36, PaO2 62, PaCO2 59, and HCO3. Which statement describes the most likely cause of the simultaneous increase in both the PaO2 and the PaCO2?

• A. The hypercapnia resulted from the rapid respirations.
• B. The hypoxic drive was reduced by the oxygen therapy.
• C. The client had a pneumothorax which restricted ventilation.
• D. The client had a pulmonary embolism that reduced perfusion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In patients with COPD, oxygen therapy can reduce the hypoxic drive, which is the primary stimulus for breathing in these individuals. By providing supplemental oxygen, the hypoxic drive is diminished, resulting in decreased respiratory effort. As a consequence, the PaO2 may increase due to the supplemental oxygen, but this can lead to a decrease in the respiratory drive and subsequent retention of carbon dioxide, causing an increase in PaCO2 levels. Option A is incorrect because rapid respirations would typically lower PaCO2 levels. Option C is incorrect as a pneumothorax would lead to impaired gas exchange and decreased PaO2 levels without necessarily affecting PaCO2 levels. Option D is incorrect as a pulmonary embolism would typically result in ventilation-perfusion mismatch and decreased PaO2 levels without directly impacting PaCO2 levels.

4. In a patient with chronic kidney disease, which of the following is a common electrolyte imbalance?

• A. Hyperkalemia.
• B. Hypokalemia.
• C. Hypernatremia.
• D. Hyponatremia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hyperkalemia is a common electrolyte imbalance in chronic kidney disease. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys' reduced function leads to the decreased excretion of potassium, resulting in elevated serum potassium levels. This can be dangerous as hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias. Hypokalemia (Choice B) is less common in chronic kidney disease as the impaired kidneys tend to retain potassium. Hypernatremia (Choice C) is more commonly seen in conditions such as dehydration, not primarily in chronic kidney disease. Hyponatremia (Choice D) is also possible in chronic kidney disease but is less common compared to hyperkalemia.

5. A client with early breast cancer receives the results of a breast biopsy and asks the nurse to explain the meaning of staging and the type of receptors found on the cancer cells. Which explanation should the nurse provide?

• A. Lymph node involvement is not significant.
• B. Small tumors are aggressive and indicate poor prognosis.
• C. The tumor's estrogen receptor guides treatment options.
• D. Stage I indicates metastasis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Treatment decisions and prediction of prognosis are related to the tumor's receptor status, such as estrogen and progesterone receptor status which commonly are well-differentiated, have a lower chance of recurrence, and are receptive to hormonal therapy. Tumor staging designates tumor size and spread of breast cancer cells into axillary lymph nodes, which is one of the most important prognostic factors in early-stage breast cancer.

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