HESI RN
Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. A client with autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) asks, “Will my children develop this disease?” How should the nurse respond?
- A. No genetic link is known, so your children are not at increased risk.
- B. Your sons will develop this disease because it has a sex-linked gene.
- C. Only if both you and your spouse are carriers of this disease.
- D. Each of your children has a 50% risk of having ADPKD.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Children whose parent has the autosomal dominant form of PKD have a 50% chance of inheriting the gene that causes the disease. ADPKD is transmitted as an autosomal dominant trait and therefore is not gender-specific. Both parents do not need to have this disorder. Choice A is incorrect because ADPKD has a known genetic link and a definitive mode of inheritance. Choice B is incorrect as ADPKD is not sex-linked but autosomal dominant. Choice C is incorrect because ADPKD follows an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern and does not require both parents to be carriers for the child to inherit the disease.
2. The patient is taking low-dose erythromycin prophylactically and will start cefaclor for treating an acute infection. The nurse should discuss this with the provider because taking both medications simultaneously can cause which effect?
- A. Decreased effectiveness of cefaclor.
- B. Increased effectiveness of cefaclor.
- C. Decreased effectiveness of erythromycin.
- D. Increased effectiveness of erythromycin.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When erythromycin and cefaclor are taken together, erythromycin can inhibit the metabolism of cefaclor, leading to elevated cefaclor levels and potentially causing adverse effects. This results in a decrease in the effectiveness of cefaclor. Therefore, the nurse should discuss this potential drug interaction with the provider to consider an alternative treatment or adjust the dosages to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the concern lies with the effect on cefaclor when combined with erythromycin, not the effect on erythromycin itself.
3. Which is a characteristic that distinguishes sulfonamides from other drugs used to treat bacterial infections?
- A. Sulfonamides are bactericidal.
- B. Sulfonamides are synthetic compounds.
- C. Sulfonamides have antifungal and antiviral properties.
- D. Sulfonamides increase bacterial synthesis of folic acid.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The characteristic that distinguishes sulfonamides from other drugs used to treat bacterial infections is that sulfonamides are synthetic compounds, not derived from biologic substances. Choice A is incorrect because sulfonamides are bacteriostatic, not bactericidal. Choice C is incorrect because sulfonamides do not have antifungal and antiviral properties. Choice D is incorrect because sulfonamides act by inhibiting bacterial synthesis of folic acid, not increasing it.
4. A client is brought to the emergency department by a neighbor. The client is lethargic and has a fruity odor on the breath. The client’s arterial blood gas (ABG) results are pH 7.25, PCO2 34 mm Hg, PO2 86 mm Hg, HCO3 14 mEq/L. Which of the following acid-base disturbances does the nurse recognize in these results?
- A. Metabolic acidosis
- B. Metabolic alkalosis
- C. Respiratory acidosis
- D. Respiratory alkalosis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Metabolic acidosis.' Metabolic acidosis is characterized by a low pH (<7.35) and a low bicarbonate level (HCO3 <22 mEq/L). In this case, the client's ABG results show a pH of 7.25 and an HCO3 level of 14 mEq/L, indicating metabolic acidosis. The PCO2 of 34 mm Hg is normal, ruling out respiratory acidosis or alkalosis. The PO2 of 86 mm Hg is also within the normal range and is not indicative of a respiratory problem. Therefore, the client is experiencing metabolic acidosis based on the ABG results provided.
5. The client with peripheral artery disease has been prescribed clopidogrel (Plavix). The nurse understands that more teaching is necessary when the client states which of the following?
- A. I should not be surprised if I bruise more easily or if my gums bleed a little when brushing my teeth.
- B. It is important to take this medicine with food to enhance its effectiveness and minimize stomach upset.
- C. I should stop taking Plavix if it makes me feel weak and dizzy.
- D. The doctor prescribed this medicine to make my platelets less likely to stick together and help prevent clots from forming.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Weakness, dizziness, and headache are common adverse effects of Plavix and should be reported. It is essential to consult a physician before stopping Plavix as it plays a crucial role in preventing platelets from sticking together and forming clots. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is a common side effect of Plavix and does not indicate a need for further teaching. Choice B is incorrect because taking Plavix with or without food can affect its absorption and effectiveness. Choice D correctly explains the purpose of prescribing Plavix to prevent clot formation.
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