Nursing Elites

1. The client with chronic renal failure is on a fluid restriction. Which of the following statements by the client indicates that the teaching has been effective?

• A. I will limit my fluid intake to prevent fluid overload.
• B. I can drink as much fluid as I want as long as I take my medication.
• C. I will skip dialysis sessions if I feel tired.
• D. I will limit my fluid intake to 1 liter per day.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because it demonstrates the client's understanding of the need to limit fluid intake to prevent fluid overload, which is crucial in managing chronic renal failure. Adequate fluid restriction is essential to prevent complications such as fluid overload and electrolyte imbalances. Choice B is incorrect as it promotes excessive fluid intake, which can worsen the client's condition by putting additional stress on the kidneys. Choice C is incorrect as skipping dialysis sessions can lead to a buildup of toxins in the body, worsening renal failure and potentially leading to life-threatening complications. Choice D is incorrect because limiting fluid intake to a specific volume may not be appropriate for all clients and can vary depending on individual needs, medical condition, and healthcare provider recommendations.

2. A nurse is suctioning a client through a tracheostomy tube. During the procedure, the client begins to cough, and the nurse hears a wheeze. The nurse tries to remove the suction catheter from the client’s trachea but is unable to do so. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Call a code
• B. Contact the physician
• C. Administer a bronchodilator
• D. Disconnect the suction source from the catheter

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Inability to remove a suction catheter is a critical situation that may indicate the presence of bronchospasm and bronchoconstriction, as evidenced by the client coughing and wheezing. The immediate action for the nurse is to disconnect the suction source from the catheter, allowing the catheter to remain in the trachea. By doing so, the nurse can then connect the oxygen source to the catheter to provide essential oxygenation to the client. Contacting the physician is necessary to notify them of the situation and to obtain further orders, typically for an inhaled bronchodilator to relieve the bronchospasm. Administering a bronchodilator without physician's orders is not within the nurse's scope of practice and should not be the first action. Calling a code would be excessive at this point and should only be done if the client's condition deteriorates and immediate resuscitation is required.

3. A nurse reviews laboratory results for a client with glomerulonephritis. The client’s glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is 40 mL/min as measured by a 24-hour creatinine clearance. How should the nurse interpret this finding? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Excessive GFR
• B. Reduced GFR
• C. Fluid retention and risks for hypertension
• D. Pulmonary edema

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A GFR of 40 mL/min indicates a reduced glomerular filtration rate. In a healthy adult, the normal GFR ranges between 100 and 120 mL/min. A GFR of 40 mL/min signifies a significant reduction, leading to fluid retention and risks for hypertension and pulmonary edema due to excess vascular fluid. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect as a GFR of 40 mL/min is not excessive but rather reduced. Choices C and D do not directly address the interpretation of GFR but instead describe potential consequences of a reduced GFR.

4. A client is scheduled to undergo computerized tomography (CT) with contrast for evaluation of an abdominal mass. The nurse should tell the client that:

• A. The test may be painful
• B. The test takes 2 to 3 hours
• C. Food and fluids are not allowed for 4 hours after the test
• D. Dye is injected and may cause a warm flushing sensation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A contrast-aided CT scan involves the injection of dye to enhance the images obtained. The dye may cause a warm flushing sensation when injected, which is a common side effect. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. CT with contrast is generally not a painful procedure, the duration of the test does not usually take 2 to 3 hours, and restrictions on food and fluids are typically before the test, not afterward.

5. A client who had a C-5 spinal cord injury 2 years ago is admitted to the emergency department with the diagnosis of autonomic dysreflexia secondary to a full bladder. Which assessment finding should the nurse expect this client to exhibit?

• A. Complaints of chest pain and shortness of breath
• B. Hypotension and venous pooling in the extremities
• C. Profuse diaphoresis and severe, pounding headache
• D. Pain and burning sensation upon urination and hematuria

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia is a life-threatening condition commonly seen in clients with spinal cord injuries above the T6 level. It is characterized by a sudden onset of excessively high blood pressure due to a noxious stimulus below the level of injury, often a distended bladder. The exaggerated sympathetic response leads to vasoconstriction, resulting in symptoms such as profuse diaphoresis (sweating) and a severe, pounding headache. These symptoms are the body's attempt to lower blood pressure. Complaints of chest pain and shortness of breath (Choice A) are not typical findings in autonomic dysreflexia. Hypotension and venous pooling (Choice B) are opposite manifestations of autonomic dysreflexia, which is characterized by hypertension. Pain and burning sensation upon urination and hematuria (Choice D) are indicative of a urinary tract infection and not specific to autonomic dysreflexia.

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