HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Exam
1. The client with diabetes mellitus should be cautioned by the nurse taking a sulfonylurea that alcoholic beverages should be avoided while taking these drugs because they can cause which of the following?
- A. Hypokalemia.
- B. Hyperkalemia.
- C. Hypocalcemia.
- D. Disulfiram (Antabuse)-like symptoms.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Disulfiram (Antabuse)-like symptoms. When a client with diabetes mellitus taking a sulfonylurea consumes alcohol, it can lead to disulfiram-like symptoms, such as nausea, flushing, and palpitations. Choice A, hypokalemia, is incorrect because sulfonylureas do not typically lead to low potassium levels. Choice B, hyperkalemia, is incorrect as sulfonylureas are not associated with high potassium levels. Choice C, hypocalcemia, is also incorrect because sulfonylureas are not known to cause low calcium levels.
2. A client is experiencing diarrhea. For which acid-base disorder should the nurse assess the client?
- A. Metabolic acidosis
- B. Metabolic alkalosis
- C. Respiratory acidosis
- D. Respiratory alkalosis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client experiences diarrhea, the loss of bicarbonate-rich fluids from the body leads to a decrease in the bicarbonate levels in the blood, resulting in metabolic acidosis. Metabolic alkalosis (choice B) is characterized by an increase in bicarbonate levels, which is not typically associated with diarrhea. Respiratory acidosis (choice C) is caused by retention of carbon dioxide, while respiratory alkalosis (choice D) results from excessive exhalation of carbon dioxide, neither of which are directly related to diarrhea. Therefore, the correct answer is metabolic acidosis (choice A) in the context of diarrhea.
3. What is the most common symptom of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?
- A. Heartburn.
- B. Nausea.
- C. Abdominal pain.
- D. Vomiting.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Heartburn. Heartburn is the most common symptom of GERD as it occurs due to the reflux of stomach acid into the esophagus. This leads to a burning sensation in the chest that can worsen after eating, lying down, or bending over. Choice B, Nausea, is not typically the most common symptom of GERD, although it can occur in some cases. Choice C, Abdominal pain, is not a primary symptom of GERD and is more commonly associated with other gastrointestinal conditions. Choice D, Vomiting, is also not the most common symptom of GERD, although it can occur in severe cases or as a result of complications.
4. The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving isotonic intravenous (IV) fluids at an infusion rate of 125 mL/hour. The nurse performs an assessment and notes a heart rate of 102 beats per minute, a blood pressure of 160/85 mm Hg, and crackles auscultated in both lungs. Which action will the nurse take?
- A. Decrease the IV fluid rate and notify the provider.
- B. Increase the IV fluid rate and notify the provider.
- C. Request an order for a colloidal IV solution.
- D. Request an order for a hypertonic IV solution.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The patient is showing signs of fluid volume excess, indicated by crackles in both lungs, increased heart rate, and elevated blood pressure. To address this, the nurse should decrease the IV fluid rate and notify the provider. Increasing the IV fluid rate would worsen fluid overload. Requesting colloidal or hypertonic IV solutions would exacerbate the issue by pulling more fluids into the intravascular space, leading to further volume overload.
5. While assessing a female client who is chronically fatigued and was recently diagnosed with adrenal insufficiency, the client tells the nurse that she is very nervous that her hospitalization will cause her to lose her job. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Teach the client about the risk for infection.
- B. Offer support and care measures to reduce anxiety and stress.
- C. Encourage the client to rest quietly to reduce fatigue.
- D. Place a referral to social services to discuss financial options.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the priority intervention for the nurse is to offer support and care measures to reduce anxiety and stress. Addressing the client's emotional distress is crucial as the stress can exacerbate adrenal insufficiency. While teaching the client about the risk for infection (Choice A) is important, addressing the immediate emotional needs takes precedence. Encouraging the client to rest quietly (Choice C) is beneficial but does not directly address the client's current distress about job loss. Referring the client to social services (Choice D) for financial options is important, but at this moment, addressing the client's anxiety is the priority to promote emotional well-being.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access