HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Quiz
1. The nurse is teaching a nursing student about the minimal effective concentration (MEC) of antibiotics. Which statement by the nursing student indicates understanding of this concept?
- A. A serum drug level greater than the MEC ensures that the drug is bacteriostatic.
- B. A serum drug level greater than the MEC broadens the spectrum of the drug.
- C. A serum drug level greater than the MEC helps eradicate bacterial infections.
- D. A serum drug level greater than the MEC increases the therapeutic index.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The MEC is the minimum amount of drug needed to halt the growth of a microorganism. A level greater than the MEC helps eradicate infections. Drugs at or above the MEC are usually bactericidal, not bacteriostatic. Therefore, choice A is incorrect. Broadening the spectrum of a drug refers to its range of activity against different microorganisms, which is not directly related to MEC. Thus, choice B is incorrect. Increasing the therapeutic index involves maximizing the effectiveness of a drug while minimizing its toxicity, which is not specifically related to MEC. Therefore, choice D is also incorrect.
2. A client in the intensive care unit is started on continuous venovenous hemofiltration (CVVH). Which finding should prompt immediate action by the nurse?
- A. Blood pressure of 76/58 mm Hg
- B. Sodium level of 138 mEq/L
- C. Potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L
- D. Pulse rate of 90 beats/min
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blood pressure of 76/58 mm Hg. In a client undergoing continuous venovenous hemofiltration (CVVH), hypotension can be a significant concern if replacement fluid does not adequately maintain blood pressure. The nurse should take immediate action to address hypotension to prevent further complications. The sodium level of 138 mEq/L is within normal range, and a potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L, while slightly elevated, may be expected in a patient with acute kidney injury. A pulse rate of 90 beats/min falls within the normal range and does not typically require immediate intervention in this context.
3. What is an expected outcome when a client is receiving an IV administration of furosemide?
- A. Increased blood pressure.
- B. Increased urine output.
- C. Decreased pain.
- D. Decreased premature ventricular contractions.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased urine output. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the ascending loop of Henle in the kidneys, leading to increased urine production. This diuretic effect helps to reduce fluid volume in the body, making it an expected outcome when a client is receiving furosemide. Choice A, increased blood pressure, is incorrect because furosemide typically causes a decrease in blood pressure due to its diuretic effect. Choice C, decreased pain, and choice D, decreased premature ventricular contractions, are unrelated to the pharmacological action of furosemide.
4. After a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy, the nurse should assess the client for:
- A. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak.
- B. Fluctuating blood glucose levels.
- C. Cushing's syndrome.
- D. Cardiac arrhythmias.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Following a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy, assessing the client for a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak is crucial due to the risk of this serious complication. A CSF leak can lead to infection and increased intracranial pressure, which must be promptly identified and managed to prevent further complications. Fluctuating blood glucose levels (Choice B) are not directly associated with a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. Cushing's syndrome (Choice C) is a condition related to prolonged exposure to high levels of cortisol and is not a common immediate concern post-transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. Cardiac arrhythmias (Choice D) are not typically a direct complication of this surgical procedure, making it a less relevant concern compared to a CSF leak.
5. A client’s baseline vital signs are temperature 98°F oral, pulse 74 beats/min, respiratory rate 18 breaths/min, and blood pressure 124/76 mm Hg. The client suddenly spikes a fever to 103°F. Which of the following respiratory rates would the nurse anticipate as part of the body’s response to the change in client status?
- A. 12 breaths/min
- B. 16 breaths/min
- C. 18 breaths/min
- D. 22 breaths/min
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client experiences a fever, there is an increase in body temperature, leading to a higher metabolic rate and oxygen demand. As a result, the respiratory rate typically increases to meet the body's increased oxygen needs. Therefore, in response to the fever spike from 98°F to 103°F, the nurse would anticipate a higher respiratory rate. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because a decrease in body temperature, not an increase as seen in fever, would lead to a decrease in respiratory rate to conserve energy and oxygen consumption.
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