Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is teaching a nursing student about the minimal effective concentration (MEC) of antibiotics. Which statement by the nursing student indicates understanding of this concept?

• A. A serum drug level greater than the MEC ensures that the drug is bacteriostatic.
• B. A serum drug level greater than the MEC broadens the spectrum of the drug.
• C. A serum drug level greater than the MEC helps eradicate bacterial infections.
• D. A serum drug level greater than the MEC increases the therapeutic index.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The MEC is the minimum amount of drug needed to halt the growth of a microorganism. A level greater than the MEC helps eradicate infections. Drugs at or above the MEC are usually bactericidal, not bacteriostatic. Therefore, choice A is incorrect. Broadening the spectrum of a drug refers to its range of activity against different microorganisms, which is not directly related to MEC. Thus, choice B is incorrect. Increasing the therapeutic index involves maximizing the effectiveness of a drug while minimizing its toxicity, which is not specifically related to MEC. Therefore, choice D is also incorrect.

2. A client recovering from extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy for renal calculi has an ecchymotic area on the right lower back. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Administer fresh-frozen plasma.
• B. Apply an ice pack to the site.
• C. Place the client in the prone position.
• D. Obtain serum coagulation test results.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy, ecchymosis can occur due to bleeding into the tissues from the shock waves. Applying an ice pack helps reduce the extent and discomfort of bruising. Administering fresh-frozen plasma and obtaining coagulation test results are not necessary as ecchymosis after this procedure is common and does not indicate a bleeding disorder that requires immediate intervention. Placing the client in the prone position will not address the bleeding or bruising in this situation.

3. The patient will take a high dose of azithromycin after discharge from the hospital. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

• A. I may take antacids 2 hours before taking this drug.
• B. I should take acetaminophen for fever or mild pain.
• C. I should expect diarrhea to be a common, mild side effect.
• D. I should avoid dairy products while taking this drug.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Azithromycin peak levels may be reduced by antacids when taken at the same time, so patients should be cautioned to take antacids 2 hours before or 2 hours after taking the drug. Choice B is incorrect because high-dose azithromycin carries a risk for hepatotoxicity when taken with other potentially hepatotoxic drugs such as acetaminophen. Choice C is incorrect as diarrhea may indicate pseudomembranous colitis and should be reported, not expected as a common mild side effect. Choice D is incorrect; there is no restriction for dairy products while taking azithromycin.

4. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which finding is most important for the nurse to respond to first?

• A. Potassium 6.0 mEq/L.
• B. Daily urine output of 400 ml.
• C. Peripheral neuropathy.
• D. Uremic fetor.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which is a critical electrolyte imbalance in clients with chronic kidney disease. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias, making it the priority finding to address. Choice B, a daily urine output of 400 ml, may indicate decreased kidney function but does not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to hyperkalemia. Peripheral neuropathy (Choice C) and uremic fetor (Choice D) are common manifestations of CKD but are not as urgent as addressing a potentially fatal electrolyte imbalance like hyperkalemia.

5. Which client should the nurse recognize as most likely to experience sleep apnea?

• A. Middle-aged female who takes a diuretic nightly.
• B. Obese older male client with a short, thick neck.
• C. Adolescent female with a history of tonsillectomy.
• D. School-aged male with a history of hyperactivity disorder.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Sleep apnea is characterized by pauses in breathing during sleep, often due to a collapsed or blocked airway. Obesity and having a short, thick neck are risk factors for sleep apnea because excess fat around the neck can obstruct the airway. Option A (middle-aged female who takes a diuretic nightly) does not present as a common risk factor for sleep apnea. Option C (adolescent female with a history of tonsillectomy) may have had tonsils removed, which could reduce the risk of sleep apnea. Option D (school-aged male with a history of hyperactivity disorder) is not directly associated with an increased risk of sleep apnea.

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