Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is teaching a nursing student about the minimal effective concentration (MEC) of antibiotics. Which statement by the nursing student indicates understanding of this concept?

• A. A serum drug level greater than the MEC ensures that the drug is bacteriostatic.
• B. A serum drug level greater than the MEC broadens the spectrum of the drug.
• C. A serum drug level greater than the MEC helps eradicate bacterial infections.
• D. A serum drug level greater than the MEC increases the therapeutic index.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The MEC is the minimum amount of drug needed to halt the growth of a microorganism. A level greater than the MEC helps eradicate infections. Drugs at or above the MEC are usually bactericidal, not bacteriostatic. Therefore, choice A is incorrect. Broadening the spectrum of a drug refers to its range of activity against different microorganisms, which is not directly related to MEC. Thus, choice B is incorrect. Increasing the therapeutic index involves maximizing the effectiveness of a drug while minimizing its toxicity, which is not specifically related to MEC. Therefore, choice D is also incorrect.

2. A healthcare professional is reviewing the results of serum laboratory studies of a client with suspected hepatitis. Which increased parameter is interpreted as the most specific indicator of this disease?

• A. Hemoglobin
• B. Serum bilirubin
• C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Serum bilirubin is the most specific indicator of hepatitis as it reflects liver dysfunction. Hemoglobin, blood urea nitrogen (BUN), and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) are not specific to hepatitis. Hemoglobin measures the oxygen-carrying capacity of red blood cells, BUN evaluates kidney function, and ESR is a nonspecific marker of inflammation or infection.

3. A female patient will receive doxycycline to treat a sexually transmitted infection (STI). What information will the nurse include when teaching this patient about this medication?

• A. Nausea and vomiting are uncommon adverse effects.
• B. The drug may cause possible teratogenic effects.
• C. Increase intake of dairy products with each dose of this medication.
• D. Use a backup method of contraception if taking oral contraceptives.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The desired action of oral contraceptives can be reduced when taken with tetracyclines like doxycycline. Therefore, patients on oral contraceptives should be advised to use a backup contraception method while taking doxycycline. Choice A is incorrect because nausea and vomiting are common adverse effects of doxycycline. Choice B is incorrect because doxycycline is not known for causing teratogenic effects. Choice C is incorrect because dairy products can interfere with the absorption of doxycycline, so they should be avoided when taking this medication.

4. Which of the following lipid abnormalities is a risk factor for the development of atherosclerosis and peripheral vascular disease?

• A. Low concentration of triglycerides.
• B. High levels of high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol.
• C. High levels of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol.
• D. Low levels of LDL cholesterol.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: High levels of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol. High levels of LDL cholesterol contribute to the development of atherosclerosis and peripheral vascular disease by being deposited in the blood vessel walls, leading to the formation of plaques that can obstruct blood flow. Choice A is incorrect as a low concentration of triglycerides is not typically associated with an increased risk of atherosclerosis or PVD. Choice B is incorrect as high levels of high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol are actually considered protective against atherosclerosis as it helps remove cholesterol from arteries. Choice D is incorrect as low levels of LDL cholesterol are not typically considered a risk factor for atherosclerosis or PVD.

5. The nurse is caring for four clients with chronic kidney disease. Which client should the nurse assess first upon initial rounding?

• A. Woman with a blood pressure of 158/90 mm Hg
• B. Client with Kussmaul respirations
• C. Man with skin itching from head to toe
• D. Client with halitosis and stomatitis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Kussmaul respirations indicate a worsening of chronic kidney disease (CKD). The client is increasing the rate and depth of breathing to excrete carbon dioxide through the lungs, a compensatory mechanism for metabolic acidosis common in CKD. Hypertension, as in choice A, is a common finding in CKD due to volume overload and activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. Skin itching, as in choice C, is related to calcium-phosphate imbalances seen in CKD. Halitosis and stomatitis, as in choice D, are common in CKD due to uremia, leading to the formation of ammonia. However, Kussmaul respirations indicate a more urgent need for assessment as they suggest impending respiratory distress and metabolic derangement, requiring immediate attention.

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