Nursing Elites

1. A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a nephrostomy. Which assessment findings should alert the nurse to urgently contact the healthcare provider? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Foul-smelling drainage
• B. Bloody drainage at site
• C. A & B
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After a nephrostomy, the nurse should assess the client for complications and urgently notify the provider if there is foul-smelling drainage, bloody drainage at the site, or both. Foul-smelling drainage can indicate infection, while bloody drainage may suggest bleeding. Clear drainage is generally normal after a nephrostomy. A headache would not typically be directly related to nephrostomy complications. Therefore, options A and B are correct choices for urgent notification, making option C the correct answer.

2. The adult client admitted to the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) following abdominal surgery has a tympanic temperature of 94.6°F (34.8°C), a pulse rate of 88 beats/minute, a respiratory rate of 14 breaths/minute, and a blood pressure of 94/64 mmHg. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Take the client's temperature using another method.
• B. Raise the head of the bed to 60 to 90 degrees.
• C. Ask the client to cough and deep breathe.
• D. Check the blood pressure every five minutes for one hour.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Taking the client's temperature using another method is the most appropriate action in this situation. A tympanic temperature of 94.6°F (34.8°C) is abnormally low and may not reflect the true core body temperature accurately. By using an alternative method, such as oral or rectal temperature measurement, the nurse can obtain a more reliable temperature reading. Raising the head of the bed (Choice B) is not directly related to addressing the low temperature. Asking the client to cough and deep breathe (Choice C) may be beneficial for respiratory function but does not address the temperature concern. Checking the blood pressure every five minutes for one hour (Choice D) is not the priority when the initial focus should be on accurate temperature assessment.

3. A client with partial thickness burns to the lower extremities is scheduled for whirlpool therapy to debride the burned area. Which intervention should the nurse implement before transporting the client to the physical therapy department?

• A. Obtain supplies to re-dress the burn area.
• B. Verify the client's signed consent form.
• C. Give a prescribed narcotic analgesic agent.
• D. Perform active range-of-motion exercises.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Before transporting the client for whirlpool therapy to debride the burned area, the nurse should give a prescribed narcotic analgesic agent. This intervention is essential to manage pain effectively during the debridement process. Obtaining supplies to re-dress the burn area (Choice A) is important but not as immediate as providing pain relief. Verifying the client's signed consent form (Choice B) is necessary for procedures but does not address the client's immediate pain needs. Performing active range-of-motion exercises (Choice D) is not indicated before whirlpool therapy for debridement of burns and may cause further discomfort to the client.

4. The patient is receiving acetazolamide (Diamox) for metabolic alkalosis and fluid overload. After taking the medication, the patient complains of right-sided flank pain. The nurse suspects that the patient has developed which condition?

• A. Gout
• B. Hemolytic anemia
• C. Metabolic acidosis
• D. Renal calculi

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Renal calculi. Acetazolamide, a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, can lead to electrolyte imbalances and the formation of renal calculi. Right-sided flank pain is a classic symptom of renal calculi. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Gout is not typically associated with acetazolamide use. Hemolytic anemia and metabolic acidosis are not commonly linked to acetazolamide-induced side effects. Therefore, the patient's symptoms align more closely with the development of renal calculi.

5. A client with cardiovascular disease is scheduled to receive a daily dose of furosemide (Lasix). Which potassium level would cause the nurse to contact the physician before administering the dose?

• A. 3.0 mEq/L
• B. 3.8 mEq/L
• C. 4.2 mEq/L
• D. 5.1 mEq/L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The normal serum potassium level in adults ranges from 3.5 to 5.1 mEq/L. A potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L is low, indicating hypokalemia and necessitating physician notification before administering furosemide, a loop diuretic that can further lower potassium levels. Potassium levels of 3.8 and 4.2 mEq/L are within the normal range, while a level of 5.1 mEq/L is high (hyperkalemia), but the critical value in this case is the low potassium level that requires immediate attention to prevent potential complications.

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