a 67 year old woman who lives alone tripped on a rug in her home and fractured her hip which predisposing factor probably led to the fracture in the p
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HESI RN

HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet

1. What most likely led to the 67-year-old woman who lives alone tripping on a rug in her home and fracturing her hip?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Osteoporosis, caused by hormonal changes in later life, is the most likely predisposing factor for the fracture in the proximal end of her femur. Osteoporosis leads to reduced bone density, making bones more fragile and susceptible to fractures, especially in the elderly. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to directly lead to a hip fracture in this scenario. Failing eyesight (choice A) could contribute to the fall but is not the main predisposing factor for the fracture. Renal osteodystrophy (choice B) and cardiovascular changes (choice D) are less commonly associated with hip fractures compared to osteoporosis in elderly women.

2. The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who is receiving prednisone 5 mg PO daily for a rash due to contact with poison ivy. Which symptoms should the nurse tell the client to report to the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Rapid weight gain can indicate fluid retention, which is a serious side effect of prednisone and should be reported.

3. In a patient with chronic kidney disease, which of the following is a common complication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hyperkalemia is a common complication in chronic kidney disease due to the kidneys' reduced ability to excrete potassium. As kidney function declines, potassium levels may increase, leading to hyperkalemia. Hypernatremia (increased sodium levels), hypocalcemia (low calcium levels), and hyperphosphatemia (elevated phosphate levels) are not typically associated with chronic kidney disease. Therefore, the correct answer is hyperkalemia.

4. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus has a blood glucose level of 620 mg/dL. After the nurse calls the physician to report the finding and monitors the client closely for:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario described, a client with a blood glucose level of 620 mg/dL and type 1 diabetes mellitus is at risk of developing metabolic acidosis. In type 1 diabetes, the lack of sufficient circulating insulin leads to an increase in blood glucose levels. As the body cells utilize all available glucose, the breakdown of fats for energy results in the production of ketones, leading to metabolic acidosis. Metabolic alkalosis, respiratory acidosis, and respiratory alkalosis are not typically associated with uncontrolled type 1 diabetes. Metabolic alkalosis is more commonly linked to conditions such as vomiting or excessive diuretic use, while respiratory acidosis and respiratory alkalosis are related to respiratory system imbalances in carbon dioxide levels.

5. The patient will begin taking penicillin G procaine (Wycillin). The nurse notes that the solution is milky in color. What action will the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer the medication as ordered by the physician. Penicillin G procaine (Wycillin) is known to have a milky appearance, which is normal. The milky color should not raise concerns for the nurse as it is an expected characteristic of this medication. Calling the pharmacist (choice A) or the physician (choice C) unnecessarily would delay the administration of the medication. Adding normal saline to dilute the medication (choice B) is not appropriate and could alter the medication's effectiveness. Therefore, the nurse should proceed with administering the medication as prescribed without any further action based on its milky appearance.

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