Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is admitted after vomiting bright red blood several times over the course of 2 hours. In reviewing the laboratory results, the nurse finds the client's hemoglobin is 12 g/dL (120g/L) and the hematocrit is 35% (0.35). Which action should the nurse prepare to take?

• A. Continue monitoring for blood loss
• B. Administer 1,000 mL (1L) of normal saline
• C. Transfuse 2 units of platelets
• D. Prepare the client for emergency surgery

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to prepare the client for emergency surgery. The client's presentation with bright red blood in vomitus suggests active bleeding, which is a medical emergency. With a hemoglobin of 12 g/dL and a hematocrit of 35%, the client is likely experiencing significant blood loss that may require surgical intervention to address the source of bleeding. Continuing to monitor for blood loss (Choice A) is not appropriate in this acute situation where immediate action is necessary. Administering normal saline (Choice B) may help with fluid resuscitation but does not address the underlying cause of bleeding. Transfusing platelets (Choice C) is not indicated in this scenario as platelets are involved in clot formation and are not the primary treatment for active bleeding in this context.

2. A client with peripheral arterial disease (PAD) has cool and pale feet with diminished pulses. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

• A. Keep the legs elevated above the level of the heart.
• B. Encourage the client to exercise daily.
• C. Apply warm compresses to the affected area.
• D. Apply ice packs to the affected area.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In peripheral arterial disease (PAD), there is decreased blood flow to the extremities. Applying warm compresses helps dilate blood vessels, improve circulation, and relieve symptoms. Elevating the legs above the heart level may further compromise blood flow. Encouraging daily exercise is important in PAD management but may not be appropriate when the client has cool, pale feet with diminished pulses. Applying ice packs can worsen vasoconstriction and further reduce blood flow, exacerbating symptoms in PAD.

3. The nurse is caring for a patient whose serum sodium level is 140 mEq/L and serum potassium level is 5.4 mEq/L. The nurse will contact the patient’s provider to discuss an order for

• A. a low-potassium diet.
• B. intravenous sodium bicarbonate.
• C. Kayexalate and sorbitol.
• D. salt substitutes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario presented, the patient is experiencing mild hyperkalemia with a potassium level of 5.4 mEq/L. The appropriate intervention for mild hyperkalemia is a low-potassium diet to restrict potassium intake. This helps in managing and preventing further elevation of potassium levels. Intravenous sodium bicarbonate is not indicated as the patient's sodium level is normal at 140 mEq/L. Kayexalate, a cation-exchange resin, is typically used for severe hyperkalemia to promote potassium excretion. Salt substitutes, which often contain potassium chloride, should be avoided in patients with hyperkalemia as they can exacerbate the condition by increasing potassium levels further.

4. A 57-year-old male client is scheduled to have a stress-thallium test the following morning and is NPO after midnight. At 0130, he is agitated because he cannot eat and is demanding food. Which response is best for the nurse to provide to this client?

• A. I'm sorry sir, you have a prescription for nothing by mouth from midnight tonight.
• B. I will let you have one cracker, but that is all you can have for the rest of tonight.
• C. What did the healthcare provider tell you about the test you are having tomorrow?
• D. The test you are having tomorrow requires that you have nothing by mouth tonight.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Being direct and explaining to the client that the test requires him to be NPO, is the most therapeutic statement because the nurse is responding to the client's question and providing him the reason why.

5. The client is being taught about the best time to plan sexual intercourse in order to conceive. Which information should be provided?

• A. Two weeks before menstruation.
• B. Vaginal mucous discharge is thick.
• C. Low basal temperature.
• D. First thing in the morning.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Two weeks before menstruation.' Ovulation typically occurs 14 days before menstruation begins during a typical 28-day cycle. To increase the chances of conception, sexual intercourse should occur within 24 hours of ovulation. High estrogen levels during ovulation lead to changes in vaginal mucous discharge, making it more 'slippery' and stretchy. Basal temperature rises during ovulation. The timing of intercourse during the day is less significant than ensuring it happens around ovulation. The other options are incorrect because planning intercourse two weeks before menstruation is likely to miss the fertile window, thick vaginal mucous discharge indicates ovulation is approaching, and low basal temperature is not indicative of the fertile period.

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