Nursing Elites

1. A patient has been taking spironolactone (Aldactone) to treat heart failure. The nurse will monitor for

• A. hyperkalemia.
• B. hypermagnesemia.
• C. hypocalcemia.
• D. hypoglycemia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic commonly used in heart failure management. One of the major side effects of spironolactone is hyperkalemia, which is an elevated level of potassium in the blood. Monitoring for hyperkalemia is crucial as it can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypermagnesemia (choice B) is not typically associated with spironolactone use. Hypocalcemia (choice C) and hypoglycemia (choice D) are also not directly linked to the use of spironolactone in heart failure treatment.

2. What is the primary action of insulin in the body?

• A. To lower blood pressure.
• B. To promote the absorption of glucose into cells.
• C. To increase blood glucose levels.
• D. To decrease blood glucose levels.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: To promote the absorption of glucose into cells. Insulin facilitates the uptake of glucose by cells, thereby decreasing blood glucose levels. Choice A is incorrect as insulin does not directly affect blood pressure. Choice C is inaccurate as insulin works to lower, not increase, blood glucose levels. Choice D is incorrect because insulin's primary role is to lower, not increase, blood glucose levels by promoting glucose uptake into cells.

3. In a patient with type 1 diabetes, which of the following is a sign of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?

• A. Polyuria
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Dry skin
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Tachycardia is a sign of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) in a patient with type 1 diabetes. In DKA, the body responds to hyperglycemia and dehydration by increasing heart rate. Polyuria (increased urination) is a symptom of diabetes but not specific to DKA. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) and dry skin are not typical signs of DKA; instead, tachycardia and other signs of volume depletion are more common.

4. Why is lactated Ringer’s solution given to a patient experiencing vomiting and diarrhea?

• A. To increase interstitial and intracellular hydration
• B. To maintain plasma volume over time
• C. To pull water from the interstitial space into the extracellular fluid
• D. To replace water and electrolytes

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Lactated Ringer’s solution is an isotonic solution commonly used to replace water and electrolytes lost due to conditions like vomiting and diarrhea. It helps to restore fluid balance by replacing the lost volume and electrolytes. Option A is incorrect because hypotonic fluids, not lactated Ringer’s solution, increase interstitial and intracellular hydration. Option B is incorrect as colloidal solutions, not lactated Ringer’s solution, are used to maintain plasma volume over time. Option C is incorrect as hypertonic solutions, not lactated Ringer’s solution, pull water from the interstitial space into the extracellular fluid.

5. A 57-year-old male client is scheduled to have a stress-thallium test the following morning and is NPO after midnight. At 0130, he is agitated because he cannot eat and is demanding food. Which response is best for the nurse to provide to this client?

• A. I'm sorry sir, you have a prescription for nothing by mouth from midnight tonight.
• B. I will let you have one cracker, but that is all you can have for the rest of tonight.
• C. What did the healthcare provider tell you about the test you are having tomorrow?
• D. The test you are having tomorrow requires that you have nothing by mouth tonight.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Being direct and explaining to the client that the test requires him to be NPO, is the most therapeutic statement because the nurse is responding to the client's question and providing him the reason why.

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