HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Quiz
1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the results of renal function testing in a client with renal calculi. Which finding indicates to the healthcare professional that the client’s blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level is within the normal range?
- A. 2 mg/dL
 - B. 18 mg/dL
 - C. 25 mg/dL
 - D. 35 mg/dL
 
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The normal BUN ranges from 5 to 20 mg/dL. A BUN level of 18 mg/dL falls within this normal range. Values of 25 and 35 mg/dL are elevated, suggesting potential renal insufficiency. Choice A (2 mg/dL) is abnormally low and not indicative of a normal BUN level.
2. A client who underwent surgery and experienced significant blood loss is being cared for by a nurse. Which findings by the nurse should prompt immediate action to prevent acute kidney injury? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Urine output of 100 mL in 4 hours
 - B. Large amount of sediment in the urine
 - C. A & B
 - D. Amber, odorless urine
 
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse must monitor for signs of acute kidney injury in a postoperative client who had major blood loss. Low urine output, presence of sediment in the urine, and low blood pressure should raise concerns and be reported to the healthcare provider promptly. Postoperatively, assessing urine characteristics is crucial. Sediment, hematuria, and urine output less than 0.5 mL/kg/hour for 3 to 4 hours should be reported. While a urine output of 100 mL in 4 hours is low, it should be compared to the recommended 0.5 mL/kg/hour over a longer period. Perfusion to the kidneys is a priority, hence the importance of addressing low blood pressure. Amber, odorless urine is considered normal and does not indicate an immediate concern for acute kidney injury, unlike low urine output and presence of sediment.
3. What is the most common side effect of diuretics such as furosemide (Lasix)?
- A. Hypokalemia.
 - B. Hyperkalemia.
 - C. Hypernatremia.
 - D. Hyponatremia.
 
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hypokalemia.' Diuretics like furosemide increase the excretion of potassium, leading to hypokalemia as a common side effect. Hyperkalemia (choice B) is the opposite condition characterized by high potassium levels, which is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hypernatremia (choice C) is increased sodium levels, while hyponatremia (choice D) is decreased sodium levels, neither of which are the most common side effects of furosemide. Therefore, choice A is the best answer.
4. A client has a serum potassium level of 6.5 mmol/L, a serum creatinine level of 2 mg/dL, and a urine output of 350 mL/day. What is the best action by the nurse?
- A. Place the client on a cardiac monitor immediately.
 - B. Teach the client to limit high-potassium foods.
 - C. Continue to monitor the client’s intake and output.
 - D. Ask to have the laboratory redraw the blood specimen.
 
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best immediate action by the nurse in this situation is to place the client on a cardiac monitor immediately. A serum potassium level of 6.5 mmol/L indicates hyperkalemia, which can lead to life-threatening dysrhythmias. Monitoring the cardiac status is crucial to detect any potential arrhythmias promptly. Teaching the client to limit high-potassium foods (Choice B) may be important for long-term management, but it is not the priority at this moment. Continuing to monitor intake and output (Choice C) is important for assessing renal function but does not address the immediate risk of dysrhythmias. Asking to have the laboratory redraw the blood specimen (Choice D) is unnecessary since the current results indicate a critical situation that requires immediate action.
5. A client with diabetes mellitus is scheduled to have blood drawn for a fasting blood glucose determination in the morning. What does the nurse tell the client is acceptable to consume on the morning of the test?
- A. Water
 - B. Tea without sugar
 - C. Coffee without milk
 - D. Clear liquids like apple juice
 
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Water. A client scheduled for a fasting blood glucose test should only consume water after midnight to ensure accurate test results. Choosing options B, C, or D, which include tea, coffee, or clear liquids like apple juice, is incorrect as they may contain substances that can affect the blood glucose levels, leading to inaccurate test results.
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