Nursing Elites

1. After undergoing a renal biopsy, a client reports pain radiating to the front of the abdomen from the biopsy site. What finding should the nurse assess the client for?

• A. Bleeding
• B. Renal colic
• C. Infection at the site
• D. Increased temperature

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bleeding. Pain radiating to the front of the abdomen from the renal biopsy site suggests bleeding, which should be promptly assessed and managed. Bleeding can lead to serious complications if not addressed timely. Renal colic (choice B) is associated with kidney stones and typically presents with severe flank pain. Infection at the site (choice C) would more likely present with localized signs such as redness, swelling, warmth, and tenderness. Increased temperature (choice D) alone is not specific to the issue described and may be indicative of various conditions.

2. A client with chronic renal failure is receiving calcium acetate (PhosLo). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hypercalcemia.
• B. Hypocalcemia.
• C. Hyperglycemia.
• D. Hypoglycemia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Question: A client with chronic renal failure is receiving calcium acetate (PhosLo). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects? Rationale: The correct answer is A, Hypercalcemia. Calcium acetate (PhosLo) is a medication used to lower phosphate levels in patients with chronic renal failure. It works by binding with dietary phosphate and preventing its absorption. However, this can lead to an excess of calcium in the blood, causing hypercalcemia. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for signs and symptoms of elevated calcium levels, such as nausea, vomiting, confusion, and muscle weakness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as calcium acetate does not typically cause hypocalcemia, hyperglycemia, or hypoglycemia.

3. A client with histoplasmosis has the following arterial blood gas (ABG) results: pH 7.30, PCO2 58 mm Hg, PO2 75 mm Hg, HCO3 27 mEq/L. Which of the following acid-base disturbances does the nurse recognize in these results?

• A. Metabolic acidosis
• B. Metabolic alkalosis
• C. Respiratory acidosis
• D. Respiratory alkalosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client's ABG results show a low pH (acidosis) and an elevated PCO2, indicating respiratory acidosis. In respiratory acidosis, there is inadequate excretion of CO2, leading to increased PCO2 levels and a decrease in pH. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Metabolic acidosis'. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by elevated pH and bicarbonate levels. Respiratory acidosis involves low pH and high PCO2 levels, as seen in this case. Respiratory alkalosis is associated with high pH and low PCO2 levels.

4. The adult client admitted to the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) following abdominal surgery has a tympanic temperature of 94.6°F (34.8°C), a pulse rate of 88 beats/minute, a respiratory rate of 14 breaths/minute, and a blood pressure of 94/64 mmHg. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Take the client's temperature using another method.
• B. Raise the head of the bed to 60 to 90 degrees.
• C. Ask the client to cough and deep breathe.
• D. Check the blood pressure every five minutes for one hour.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Taking the client's temperature using another method is the most appropriate action in this situation. A tympanic temperature of 94.6°F (34.8°C) is abnormally low and may not reflect the true core body temperature accurately. By using an alternative method, such as oral or rectal temperature measurement, the nurse can obtain a more reliable temperature reading. Raising the head of the bed (Choice B) is not directly related to addressing the low temperature. Asking the client to cough and deep breathe (Choice C) may be beneficial for respiratory function but does not address the temperature concern. Checking the blood pressure every five minutes for one hour (Choice D) is not the priority when the initial focus should be on accurate temperature assessment.

5. A client who has heart failure is admitted with a serum potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Administer 20 mEq of potassium chloride.
• B. Initiate continuous cardiac monitoring.
• C. Arrange a consultation with the dietitian.
• D. Educate about the side effects of diuretics.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hypokalemia, defined as a serum potassium level below the normal range of 3.5 to 5 mEq/L, can lead to changes in myocardial irritability and ECG waveform, potentially causing life-threatening dysrhythmias. Therefore, the priority action for the nurse is to initiate continuous cardiac monitoring to promptly detect any abnormal heart rhythms or ventricular ectopy. This monitoring is crucial for assessing the impact of potassium replacement therapy on the cardiac rhythm and ensuring the safety of the client. While administering potassium chloride is important for correcting the hypokalemia, it should occur after cardiac monitoring is in place. Consulting with a dietitian and educating about diuretic side effects are relevant aspects of care but are not the immediate priority in this situation where cardiac monitoring takes precedence for timely intervention.

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