Nursing Elites

1. A client has pyelonephritis and expresses embarrassment about discussing symptoms. How should the nurse respond?

• A. Assure the client that their symptoms will be kept confidential.
• B. Acknowledge the client's discomfort and avoid discussing elimination topics.
• C. Encourage the use of familiar language and assure the client they can take their time.
• D. Offer the client a nurse of the same gender to provide care.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client expresses embarrassment or discomfort in discussing symptoms related to sensitive topics like elimination and the genitourinary area, the nurse should respond by encouraging the client to use words they are comfortable with. This helps the client feel more at ease and opens up communication. Offering a nurse of the same gender may not address the client's discomfort with discussing symptoms. Assuring confidentiality is important, but it should not be promised in a way that may not be fulfilled. Avoiding the topic of elimination entirely does not address the client's feelings or promote effective communication.

2. A client with diabetes is taking insulin lispro (Humalog) injections. The nurse should advise the client to eat:

• A. Within 10 to 15 minutes after the injection.
• B. 1 hour after the injection.
• C. At any time, because timing of meals with lispro injections is unnecessary.
• D. 2 hours before the injection.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to eat within 10 to 15 minutes after the injection. Insulin lispro, also known as Humalog, is a rapid-acting insulin that starts working very quickly. Eating shortly after the injection helps match the food intake with the insulin action, reducing the risk of hypoglycemia. Choice B is incorrect because waiting 1 hour after the injection may lead to a mismatch between insulin activity and food intake. Choice C is incorrect as timing meals with lispro injections is essential to optimize glycemic control. Choice D is incorrect as eating 2 hours before the injection is not in alignment with the rapid action of insulin lispro and may lead to fluctuations in blood sugar levels.

3. Alteplase recombinant, or tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA), a thrombolytic enzyme, is administered during the first 6 hours after onset of myocardial infarction (MI) to:

• A. Control chest pain.
• B. Reduce coronary artery vasospasm.
• C. Control the arrhythmias associated with MI.
• D. Revascularize the blocked coronary artery.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Alteplase recombinant, or t-PA, is a thrombolytic enzyme used to dissolve clots and revascularize the blocked coronary artery in patients experiencing a myocardial infarction (MI). Administering t-PA within the first 6 hours of MI onset is crucial to restore blood flow to the affected area and minimize cardiac tissue damage. Therefore, the correct answer is to revascularize the blocked coronary artery. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while controlling chest pain, reducing coronary artery vasospasm, and managing arrhythmias are important goals in managing MI, the primary purpose of administering t-PA within the first 6 hours is to restore blood flow by dissolving clots and revascularizing the blocked coronary artery.

4. A client with chronic renal failure is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). The nurse should assess the client for which of the following complications?

• A. Hypertension.
• B. Hypotension.
• C. Hyperglycemia.
• D. Edema.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Epoetin alfa (Epogen) is known to increase blood pressure by stimulating red blood cell production. Monitoring for hypertension is crucial to prevent complications such as heart failure or stroke. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypotension, hyperglycemia, and edema are not typically associated with epoetin alfa therapy in clients with chronic renal failure.

5. What is the primary purpose of administering IV fluids to a patient in septic shock?

• A. To reduce blood pressure.
• B. To increase cardiac output.
• C. To stabilize blood glucose levels.
• D. To maintain adequate tissue perfusion.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The primary purpose of administering IV fluids to a patient in septic shock is to maintain adequate tissue perfusion. In septic shock, there is a significant drop in blood pressure and systemic vascular resistance leading to poor tissue perfusion. IV fluids help to restore intravascular volume, improve perfusion to vital organs, and prevent organ failure. Choice A ('To reduce blood pressure') is incorrect because IV fluids in septic shock aim to restore tissue perfusion rather than lower blood pressure. Choice B ('To increase cardiac output') is incorrect as the primary goal is to improve tissue perfusion, not specifically increase cardiac output. Choice C ('To stabilize blood glucose levels') is unrelated to the primary purpose of administering IV fluids in septic shock, which is to address the compromised tissue perfusion.

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