the nurse is caring for a patient who is to begin receiving a thiazide diuretic to treat heart failure when performing a health history on this patien
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HESI RN

HESI RN Medical Surgical Practice Exam

1. When performing a health history on a patient who is to begin receiving a thiazide diuretic to treat heart failure, the nurse will be concerned about a history of which condition?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Thiazide diuretics block uric acid secretion, leading to elevated levels that can contribute to gout. Therefore, patients with a history of gout should take thiazide diuretics with caution. Asthma (Choice A), Glaucoma (Choice B), and Hypertension (Choice D) are not directly contraindicated with thiazide diuretics, making choices A, B, and D incorrect.

2. Which of the following assessments is the most important for a patient receiving IV potassium?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most important assessment for a patient receiving IV potassium is monitoring blood pressure. IV potassium can cause significant changes in cardiac function, leading to adverse effects such as arrhythmias and cardiac arrest. While respiratory rate, heart rate, and oxygen saturation are important parameters to monitor in clinical practice, blood pressure takes precedence in patients receiving IV potassium due to its direct impact on cardiovascular function. Changes in blood pressure can be an early indicator of potassium-induced cardiac complications, making it crucial to monitor closely during administration.

3. The nurse is caring for a patient who has had severe vomiting. The patient’s serum sodium level is 130 mEq/L. The nurse will expect the patient’s provider to order which treatment?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the patient has hyponatremia with a serum sodium level of 130 mEq/L. For a serum sodium level between 125 and 135 mEq/L, the appropriate treatment is intravenous normal saline 0.9%. Normal saline helps to increase the sodium content in the vascular fluid. Diuretic therapy would exacerbate sodium and fluid depletion, which is not suitable for a patient already dehydrated from severe vomiting. Intravenous hypertonic 5% saline is typically reserved for severe hyponatremia with a serum sodium level below 120 mEq/L. Oral sodium supplements are not feasible in this case as the patient is vomiting and may not be able to tolerate oral intake easily.

4. Which of the following is a common cause of chronic liver disease?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hepatitis C infection is a common cause of chronic liver disease due to its long-term effects on the liver. Hepatitis C can lead to liver inflammation, fibrosis, cirrhosis, and even liver cancer. Alcohol abuse can also cause liver damage, but hepatitis C infection is specifically known for its chronic impact on liver health. Obesity and smoking, while detrimental to overall health, are not typically direct causes of chronic liver disease like hepatitis C infection.

5. Which of the following is the best position for a patient experiencing dyspnea?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Fowler's position is the best position for a patient experiencing dyspnea. This position involves sitting the patient upright with the head of the bed elevated between 45-60 degrees. Fowler's position helps improve breathing in patients with dyspnea by promoting lung expansion, aiding in better oxygenation, and reducing the work of breathing. The supine position (Choice A) may worsen dyspnea by limiting lung expansion. The Trendelenburg position (Choice C) with the feet elevated and the head down is not recommended for dyspnea as it can increase pressure on the chest and compromise breathing. The lateral recumbent position (Choice D) is not ideal for dyspnea as it does not provide optimal lung expansion and may not alleviate breathing difficulty.

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