HESI RN
Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet
1. Which of the following lipid abnormalities is a risk factor for the development of atherosclerosis and peripheral vascular disease?
- A. Low concentration of triglycerides.
- B. High levels of high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol.
- C. High levels of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol.
- D. Low levels of LDL cholesterol.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: High levels of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol. High levels of LDL cholesterol contribute to the development of atherosclerosis and peripheral vascular disease by being deposited in the blood vessel walls, leading to the formation of plaques that can obstruct blood flow. Choice A is incorrect as a low concentration of triglycerides is not typically associated with an increased risk of atherosclerosis or PVD. Choice B is incorrect as high levels of high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol are actually considered protective against atherosclerosis as it helps remove cholesterol from arteries. Choice D is incorrect as low levels of LDL cholesterol are not typically considered a risk factor for atherosclerosis or PVD.
2. A 32-year-old female client complains of severe abdominal pain each month before her menstrual period, painful intercourse, and painful defecation. Which additional history should the nurse obtain that is consistent with the client's complaints?
- A. Frequent urinary tract infections.
- B. Inability to get pregnant.
- C. Premenstrual syndrome.
- D. Chronic use of laxatives.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Inability to get pregnant.' The symptoms described in the client's complaints, which include severe abdominal pain before menstruation, painful intercourse, and painful defecation, are indicative of endometriosis. Endometriosis is a condition characterized by the abnormal presence of endometrial tissue outside the uterus, commonly leading to infertility. While choices A, C, and D may be associated with other conditions, they are not directly related to the symptoms described by the client, making them incorrect choices. Frequent urinary tract infections may suggest a different issue, premenstrual syndrome does not typically present with severe abdominal pain, and chronic use of laxatives is not a typical symptom of endometriosis.
3. During nasotracheal suctioning, which of the following observations should be cause for concern to the nurse? Select all that apply.
- A. The client becomes cyanotic.
- B. Secretions are bloody.
- C. The client gags during the procedure.
- D. Clear to opaque secretions are removed.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During nasotracheal suctioning, the client gagging during the procedure is a cause for concern as it can indicate discomfort or potential airway obstruction. Cyanosis, bloody secretions, or the removal of clear to opaque secretions are expected observations that the nurse should monitor for, but gagging indicates a need for immediate intervention to ensure the safety and comfort of the client. Cyanosis and bloody secretions can signify oxygenation issues and potential complications, while the removal of secretions is the goal of the suctioning procedure.
4. Which is a characteristic that distinguishes sulfonamides from other drugs used to treat bacterial infections?
- A. Sulfonamides are bactericidal.
- B. Sulfonamides are synthetic compounds.
- C. Sulfonamides have antifungal and antiviral properties.
- D. Sulfonamides increase bacterial synthesis of folic acid.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The characteristic that distinguishes sulfonamides from other drugs used to treat bacterial infections is that sulfonamides are synthetic compounds, not derived from biologic substances. Choice A is incorrect because sulfonamides are bacteriostatic, not bactericidal. Choice C is incorrect because sulfonamides do not have antifungal and antiviral properties. Choice D is incorrect because sulfonamides act by inhibiting bacterial synthesis of folic acid, not increasing it.
5. What is the priority intervention for a patient with a suspected myocardial infarction (MI)?
- A. Administering oxygen.
- B. Administering nitroglycerin.
- C. Administering aspirin.
- D. Administering morphine.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen is the priority intervention for a patient with a suspected myocardial infarction to improve oxygenation. Oxygen helps ensure an adequate oxygen supply to the heart muscle, reducing the workload on the heart. Nitroglycerin and aspirin are important interventions in the treatment of MI; however, oxygen administration takes precedence to ensure adequate oxygenation. Morphine may be considered for pain relief, but it is not the initial priority in the treatment of a suspected MI.
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