HESI RN
RN Medical/Surgical NGN HESI 2023
1. The nurse is caring for a patient who develops marked edema and a low urine output as a result of heart failure. Which medication will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?
- A. Digoxin (Lanoxin)
- B. Furosemide (Lasix)
- C. Hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL)
- D. Spironolactone (Aldactone)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In heart failure with marked edema and low urine output, the nurse can expect the provider to order Furosemide (Lasix). Furosemide is a loop diuretic that acts quickly to remove excess fluid from the body, making it an appropriate choice for this patient's condition. Digoxin is used to improve heart function but does not directly address fluid overload. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that is not as potent as Furosemide in managing acute fluid retention. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that is typically used in heart failure for its aldosterone-blocking effects and not for immediate fluid removal.
2. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic renal failure who is receiving peritoneal dialysis. Which of the following findings would indicate a complication of the treatment?
- A. Clear dialysate outflow.
- B. Cloudy dialysate outflow.
- C. Decreased urine output.
- D. Increased blood pressure.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Cloudy dialysate outflow is a sign of peritonitis, a serious complication of peritoneal dialysis that requires immediate medical attention. Peritonitis, an infection of the peritoneum, the lining of the abdominal cavity, can lead to severe complications if not treated promptly. Clear dialysate outflow is an expected finding in peritoneal dialysis, indicating proper functioning of the process. Decreased urine output is common in clients with renal failure due to impaired kidney function. Increased blood pressure may be present in renal failure but is not a direct complication of peritoneal dialysis.
3. A client with early breast cancer receives the results of a breast biopsy and asks the nurse to explain the meaning of staging and the type of receptors found on the cancer cells. Which explanation should the nurse provide?
- A. Lymph node involvement is not significant.
- B. Small tumors are aggressive and indicate poor prognosis.
- C. The tumor's estrogen receptor guides treatment options.
- D. Stage I indicates metastasis.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Treatment decisions and prediction of prognosis are related to the tumor's receptor status, such as estrogen and progesterone receptor status which commonly are well-differentiated, have a lower chance of recurrence, and are receptive to hormonal therapy. Tumor staging designates tumor size and spread of breast cancer cells into axillary lymph nodes, which is one of the most important prognostic factors in early-stage breast cancer.
4. A 68-year-old client on day 2 after hip surgery has no cardiac history but reports having chest heaviness. The first nursing action should be to:
- A. Inquire about the onset, duration, severity, and precipitating factors of the heaviness.
- B. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
- C. Offer pain medication for the chest heaviness.
- D. Inform the physician of the chest heaviness.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct first nursing action when a client reports chest heaviness post-hip surgery is to gather more information through assessment. Inquiring about the onset, duration, severity, and precipitating factors of the heaviness is crucial to determine the cause. This approach helps the nurse to gather essential data to make an informed decision regarding the client's care. Administering oxygen (Choice B) may be indicated based on assessment findings, but it is crucial to assess first. Offering pain medication (Choice C) without further assessment is premature and may mask symptoms. Informing the physician (Choice D) should be done after a thorough assessment to provide comprehensive information for appropriate medical decision-making.
5. Which instruction should be included in the discharge teaching plan for a client who underwent cataract extraction today?
- A. Use a metal eye shield on the operative eye during the day.
- B. Administer eye ointment before applying eye drops.
- C. Sexual activities may be resumed after returning home.
- D. Light housekeeping is safe to do, but avoid heavy lifting.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct instruction to include in the discharge teaching plan for a client who underwent cataract extraction is to advise them that light housekeeping is safe to do, but they should avoid heavy lifting. Heavy lifting can strain the surgical site and potentially lead to complications. Choice A is incorrect as a metal eye shield is usually recommended during sleep, not during the day. Choice B is incorrect because eye ointment should typically be administered after applying eye drops to prevent dilution of the medication. Choice C is incorrect as sexual activities should usually be avoided for a specific period post-surgery as advised by the healthcare provider.
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