Nursing Elites

1. A 68-year-old client on day 2 after hip surgery has no cardiac history but reports having chest heaviness. The first nursing action should be to:

• A. Inquire about the onset, duration, severity, and precipitating factors of the heaviness.
• B. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
• C. Offer pain medication for the chest heaviness.
• D. Inform the physician of the chest heaviness.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first nursing action when a client reports chest heaviness post-hip surgery is to gather more information through assessment. Inquiring about the onset, duration, severity, and precipitating factors of the heaviness is crucial to determine the cause. This approach helps the nurse to gather essential data to make an informed decision regarding the client's care. Administering oxygen (Choice B) may be indicated based on assessment findings, but it is crucial to assess first. Offering pain medication (Choice C) without further assessment is premature and may mask symptoms. Informing the physician (Choice D) should be done after a thorough assessment to provide comprehensive information for appropriate medical decision-making.

2. A client is unsure of the decision to undergo peritoneal dialysis (PD) and wishes to discuss the advantages of this treatment with the nurse. Which statements by the nurse are accurate regarding PD? (Select all that apply.)

• A. You will not need vascular access to perform PD.
• B. There is less restriction of protein and fluids.
• C. You have flexible scheduling for the exchanges.
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, as all the statements are accurate advantages of peritoneal dialysis (PD). Peritoneal dialysis does not require vascular access, offers less restriction on protein and fluids, and provides flexibility in scheduling for the exchanges. Choice A is correct because one of the advantages of PD is not needing vascular access, which is required in hemodialysis. Choice B is correct because PD allows for less dietary restriction compared to hemodialysis. Choice C is correct because PD allows for flexible scheduling of exchanges, providing more independence to the individual undergoing treatment.

3. A client is vomiting. For which acid-base imbalance does the nurse assess the client?

• A. Metabolic acidosis
• B. Metabolic alkalosis
• C. Respiratory acidosis
• D. Respiratory alkalosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client who is vomiting, the loss of gastric fluid containing hydrochloric acid can lead to metabolic alkalosis. Metabolic alkalosis is caused by the loss of acids such as hydrochloric acid from the body. Therefore, in this scenario, the nurse should assess the client for metabolic alkalosis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because vomiting does not typically lead to metabolic acidosis, respiratory acidosis, or respiratory alkalosis.

4. The nurse is caring for a 70-kg patient who is receiving gentamicin (Garamycin) 85 mg 4 times daily. The patient reports experiencing ringing in the ears. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss

• A. decreasing the dose to 50 mg QID.
• B. giving the dose 3 times daily.
• C. obtaining a serum drug level.
• D. ordering a hearing test.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient receiving gentamicin (Garamycin) reports experiencing ringing in the ears, it is crucial to consider the possibility of ototoxicity. Ototoxicity is a known adverse effect of aminoglycosides. The appropriate action for the nurse in this situation is to contact the provider to discuss obtaining a serum drug level. This is important to assess the drug concentration in the patient's blood, which can help determine if the ringing in the ears is related to the medication. Decreasing the dose or changing the dosing frequency without assessing the serum drug level may not address the underlying issue and could potentially lead to suboptimal treatment. Ordering a hearing test may be necessary at a later stage if the serum drug level indicates a concern. Therefore, option C, obtaining a serum drug level, is the most appropriate action to take in this scenario.

5. The client is being taught about the best time to plan sexual intercourse in order to conceive. Which information should be provided?

• A. Two weeks before menstruation.
• B. Vaginal mucous discharge is thick.
• C. Low basal temperature.
• D. First thing in the morning.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Two weeks before menstruation.' Ovulation typically occurs 14 days before menstruation begins during a typical 28-day cycle. To increase the chances of conception, sexual intercourse should occur within 24 hours of ovulation. High estrogen levels during ovulation lead to changes in vaginal mucous discharge, making it more 'slippery' and stretchy. Basal temperature rises during ovulation. The timing of intercourse during the day is less significant than ensuring it happens around ovulation. The other options are incorrect because planning intercourse two weeks before menstruation is likely to miss the fertile window, thick vaginal mucous discharge indicates ovulation is approaching, and low basal temperature is not indicative of the fertile period.

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