Nursing Elites

1. The nurse observes an increased number of blood clots in the drainage tubing of a client with continuous bladder irrigation following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). What is the best initial nursing action?

• A. Provide additional oral fluid intake
• B. Measure the client's intake and output
• C. Increase the flow of the bladder irrigation
• D. Administer a PRN dose of an antispasmodic agent

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best initial nursing action when observing an increased number of blood clots in the drainage tubing of a client with continuous bladder irrigation post-TURP is to increase the flow of the bladder irrigation. This action helps prevent blood clots from obstructing the catheter, ensuring effective drainage and promoting client comfort. Providing additional oral fluid intake (Choice A) is important for overall hydration but may not directly address the issue of blood clots in the drainage tubing. Measuring the client's intake and output (Choice B) is a routine nursing assessment that may not directly address the immediate concern of blood clots obstructing the catheter. Administering a PRN dose of an antispasmodic agent (Choice D) is not the best initial action as it does not directly address the issue of blood clots in the drainage tubing.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic renal failure who is on a low-potassium diet. Which of the following foods should the client avoid?

• A. Bananas
• B. Potatoes
• C. Rice
• D. Apples

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bananas are high in potassium content, which can lead to hyperkalemia in clients with chronic renal failure who are on a low-potassium diet. Therefore, it is crucial for these clients to avoid bananas. Potatoes, rice, and apples are lower in potassium compared to bananas and are generally considered safe for consumption in clients with chronic renal failure on a low-potassium diet.

3. A client with Herpes Zoster (shingles) on the thorax tells the nurse about having difficulty sleeping. What is the probable cause of this problem?

• A. Frequent cough
• B. Pain
• C. Nocturia
• D. Dyspnea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pain. Pain is a common and significant symptom of Herpes Zoster (shingles) that can result in difficulty sleeping. The pain associated with shingles can be intense and persistent, making it challenging for the client to find a comfortable position to sleep. Nocturia (choice C), which is excessive urination during the night, is not directly related to difficulty sleeping in this context. While both frequent cough (choice A) and dyspnea (choice D) can cause sleep disturbances, in a client with Herpes Zoster on the thorax, pain is the most probable cause of sleep difficulty.

4. The healthcare provider assesses a client with cirrhosis and finds 4+ pitting edema of the feet and legs, and massive ascites. Which mechanism contributes to edema and ascites in clients with cirrhosis?

• A. Hyperaldosteronism causing increased sodium transport ion in renal tubules
• B. Decreased portacaval pressure with greater collateral circulation
• C. Decreased renin-angiotensin response related to increased renal blood flow
• D. Hypoalbuminemia that results in decreased colloidal oncotic pressure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In clients with cirrhosis, hypoalbuminemia leads to decreased colloidal oncotic pressure. This reduction in oncotic pressure contributes to the development of edema in the feet and legs (pitting edema) and ascites in the abdomen. Hyperaldosteronism (choice A) would lead to sodium retention but is not the primary mechanism behind edema and ascites in cirrhosis. Decreased portacaval pressure with greater collateral circulation (choice B) is not directly related to the pathophysiology of edema and ascites in cirrhosis. Decreased renin-angiotensin response related to increased renal blood flow (choice C) does not play a significant role in the development of edema and ascites in cirrhosis compared to the impact of hypoalbuminemia on colloidal oncotic pressure.

5. A nurse is conducting an assessment of a client who underwent thoracentesis of the right side of the chest 3 hours ago. Which findings does the nurse report to the physician? Select all that apply.

• A. Unequal chest expansion
• B. Pulse rate of 82 beats/min
• C. Respiratory rate of 22 breaths/min
• D. Diminished breath sounds in the right lung

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After thoracentesis, the nurse should assess the client for signs of pneumothorax, which include increased respiratory rate, dyspnea, retractions, unequal chest expansion, diminished breath sounds, and cyanosis. Unequal chest expansion is a key sign of pneumothorax due to the accumulation of air in the pleural space, causing the affected lung to collapse partially. Pulse rate and respiratory rate within normal ranges, like in choices B and C, are not the priority findings to report in this situation. Diminished breath sounds in the right lung could be expected after thoracentesis and may not necessarily indicate a complication like pneumothorax, making choice D less urgent to report.

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