Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is preparing to administer the first dose of hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL) 50 mg to a patient who has a blood pressure of 160/95 mm Hg. The nurse notes that the patient had a urine output of 200 mL in the past 12 hours. The nurse will perform which action?

• A. Administer the medication as ordered.
• B. Encourage the patient to drink more fluids.
• C. Hold the medication and request an order for serum BUN and creatinine.
• D. Request an order for serum electrolytes and administer the medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action is to hold the medication and request an order for serum BUN and creatinine. Thiazide diuretics, such as hydrochlorothiazide, are contraindicated in renal failure. In this case, the patient has oliguria, which is a reduced urine output, indicating potential renal insufficiency. Before administering the diuretic, it is crucial to evaluate the patient's renal function through serum BUN and creatinine levels. Encouraging the patient to drink more fluids (Choice B) may not address the underlying issue of renal function. Administering the medication as ordered (Choice A) without assessing renal function can be harmful. Requesting serum electrolytes and administering the medication (Choice D) overlooks the need for a specific evaluation of renal function in this scenario.

2. What do crackles heard on lung auscultation indicate?

• A. Cyanosis.
• B. Bronchospasm.
• C. Airway narrowing.
• D. Fluid-filled alveoli.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Crackles heard on lung auscultation are caused by the popping open of small airways that are filled with fluid. This is commonly associated with conditions such as pulmonary edema, pneumonia, or heart failure. Cyanosis (Choice A) is a bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes due to low oxygen levels in the blood, not directly related to crackles. Bronchospasm (Choice B) refers to the constriction of the airway smooth muscle, causing difficulty in breathing but does not typically produce crackles. Airway narrowing (Choice C) can lead to wheezing but is not directly linked to crackles heard on auscultation.

3. A client has just regained bowel sounds after undergoing surgery. The physician has prescribed a clear liquid diet for the client. Which of the following items should the nurse ensure is available in the client’s room before allowing the client to drink?

• A. Straw
• B. Napkin
• C. Oxygen saturation monitor
• D. Suction equipment

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After surgery, when a client has just regained bowel sounds and is prescribed a clear liquid diet, the nurse needs to consider the possibility of impaired swallow reflexes due to anesthesia effects, leading to an increased risk of aspiration. Despite checking the gag and swallow reflexes before offering fluids, having suction equipment readily available in the client's room is essential to manage any potential aspiration risk. Therefore, the correct answer is suction equipment (choice D). Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while a straw, napkin, and oxygen saturation monitor may be useful in other situations, they are not directly related to managing the risk of aspiration associated with offering fluids to a client post-surgery.

4. During CPR, when attempting to ventilate a client's lungs, the nurse notes that the chest is not moving. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Use a laryngoscope to check for a foreign body lodged in the airway.
• B. Reposition the head to ensure that the airway is properly opened.
• C. Turn the client to the side and administer three back blows.
• D. Perform a finger sweep of the mouth to clear any obstructions.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most common reason for inadequate lung aeration during CPR is the incorrect positioning of the head, leading to airway obstruction. Therefore, the initial action should be to reposition the head to open the airway properly and attempt to ventilate again. Using a laryngoscope to check for foreign bodies in the airway (Choice A) is not the first step and could delay crucial interventions. Turning the client to the side and administering back blows (Choice C) is not indicated in this scenario as the focus is on ventilating the lungs. Performing a finger sweep of the mouth (Choice D) is not recommended as it may push obstructions further into the airway during CPR.

5. The client is being taught about the best time to plan sexual intercourse in order to conceive. Which information should be provided?

• A. Two weeks before menstruation.
• B. Vaginal mucous discharge is thick.
• C. Low basal temperature.
• D. First thing in the morning.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Two weeks before menstruation.' Ovulation typically occurs 14 days before menstruation begins during a typical 28-day cycle. To increase the chances of conception, sexual intercourse should occur within 24 hours of ovulation. High estrogen levels during ovulation lead to changes in vaginal mucous discharge, making it more 'slippery' and stretchy. Basal temperature rises during ovulation. The timing of intercourse during the day is less significant than ensuring it happens around ovulation. The other options are incorrect because planning intercourse two weeks before menstruation is likely to miss the fertile window, thick vaginal mucous discharge indicates ovulation is approaching, and low basal temperature is not indicative of the fertile period.

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