Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is preparing to administer the first dose of hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL) 50 mg to a patient who has a blood pressure of 160/95 mm Hg. The nurse notes that the patient had a urine output of 200 mL in the past 12 hours. The nurse will perform which action?

• A. Administer the medication as ordered.
• B. Encourage the patient to drink more fluids.
• C. Hold the medication and request an order for serum BUN and creatinine.
• D. Request an order for serum electrolytes and administer the medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action is to hold the medication and request an order for serum BUN and creatinine. Thiazide diuretics, such as hydrochlorothiazide, are contraindicated in renal failure. In this case, the patient has oliguria, which is a reduced urine output, indicating potential renal insufficiency. Before administering the diuretic, it is crucial to evaluate the patient's renal function through serum BUN and creatinine levels. Encouraging the patient to drink more fluids (Choice B) may not address the underlying issue of renal function. Administering the medication as ordered (Choice A) without assessing renal function can be harmful. Requesting serum electrolytes and administering the medication (Choice D) overlooks the need for a specific evaluation of renal function in this scenario.

2. A client was admitted for a myocardial infarction and cardiogenic shock 2 days ago. Which laboratory test result should a nurse expect to find?

• A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 52 mg/dL
• B. Creatinine of 2.3 mg/dL
• C. BUN of 10 mg/dL
• D. BUN/creatinine ratio of 8:1

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In cardiogenic shock, decreased renal perfusion leads to an elevated BUN. Choice A is correct. Creatinine remains normal in cardiogenic shock as it signifies kidney damage, which has not occurred in this case. A low BUN indicates overhydration, malnutrition, or liver damage, which are not typically seen in cardiogenic shock. A low BUN/creatinine ratio is associated with fluid volume excess or acute renal tubular acidosis, not specifically indicative of cardiogenic shock.

3. A client who is scheduled for cardiac catheterization to rule out coronary occlusion should be informed by the nurse that:

• A. The procedure is performed in a darkened room in the radiology department
• B. It is necessary to lie quietly on a hard x-ray table for about 4 hours
• C. The room is bright and well lit, and it is best to keep the eyes closed
• D. The client may have feelings of warmth or flushing during the procedure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Before cardiac catheterization, the nurse should inform the client that the procedure is performed in a darkened room in the radiology department, not the operating room. The client should expect to lie still on an x-ray table for the duration of the procedure, not necessarily for about 4 hours. Keeping the eyes closed is not necessary as the room is usually dimly lit. The client may experience sensations of warmth or flushing during the procedure due to catheter passage and dye injection, making choice D the correct answer.

4. Why is the combination drug trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) necessary?

• A. To broaden the antibacterial spectrum.
• B. To decrease bacterial resistance.
• C. To improve the taste.
• D. To minimize toxic effects.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: To decrease bacterial resistance. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) is a combination drug used to prevent bacterial resistance to sulfonamides. It works by targeting different steps in the bacterial metabolic pathway, making it harder for bacteria to develop resistance. Choice A is incorrect because the combination does not broaden the antibacterial spectrum; instead, it enhances effectiveness against specific bacteria. Choice C is incorrect as taste improvement is not the primary reason for combining these drugs. Choice D is incorrect because while combination therapy can sometimes help minimize toxic effects, the primary purpose in this case is to address bacterial resistance.

5. A patient who is taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) calls to report developing an all-over rash. What action should the nurse instruct the patient to perform?

• A. Increase fluid intake.
• B. Take diphenhydramine.
• C. Stop taking TMP-SMX immediately.
• D. Continue taking the medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient develops an all-over rash while taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX), it may indicate a serious drug reaction. In this case, the patient should stop taking the medication immediately and notify their healthcare provider. Increasing fluid intake (Choice A) may be beneficial in some cases but is not the priority when a serious drug reaction is suspected. Taking diphenhydramine (Choice B) may help with itching but does not address the underlying issue of a potential drug reaction. Continuing the medication (Choice D) is not advisable when a serious adverse reaction such as a widespread rash occurs.

Similar Questions