Nursing Elites

1. Why is the combination drug trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) necessary?

• A. To broaden the antibacterial spectrum.
• B. To decrease bacterial resistance.
• C. To improve the taste.
• D. To minimize toxic effects.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: To decrease bacterial resistance. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) is a combination drug used to prevent bacterial resistance to sulfonamides. It works by targeting different steps in the bacterial metabolic pathway, making it harder for bacteria to develop resistance. Choice A is incorrect because the combination does not broaden the antibacterial spectrum; instead, it enhances effectiveness against specific bacteria. Choice C is incorrect as taste improvement is not the primary reason for combining these drugs. Choice D is incorrect because while combination therapy can sometimes help minimize toxic effects, the primary purpose in this case is to address bacterial resistance.

2. The home health nurse provides teaching about insulin self-injection to a client who was recently diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. When the client begins to perform a return demonstration of an insulin injection into the abdomen, which instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Select a different injection site
• B. Continue with the insulin injection
• C. Keep the skin flat rather than bunched
• D. Lie down flat for better skin exposure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choosing to continue with the insulin injection is the correct instruction in this scenario because it allows the client to demonstrate proper technique and reinforces their learning. Selecting a different injection site (choice A) is not necessary if the client is injecting into the abdomen as it is a suitable site. Keeping the skin flat rather than bunched (choice C) is a good practice but is not the priority in this situation where the client is demonstrating the injection technique. Lying down flat for better skin exposure (choice D) is not required and may not be practical for the client during routine self-injections.

3. In a client with congestive heart failure, the nurse would be correct in withholding a dose of digoxin without specific instruction from the healthcare provider if the client's

• A. serum digoxin level is 1.5 ng/mL.
• B. blood pressure is 104/68 mmHg.
• C. serum potassium level is 3 mEq/L.
• D. apical pulse is 68/min.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Hypokalemia can precipitate digitalis toxicity in individuals on digoxin, increasing the risk of dangerous dysrhythmias. A serum potassium level of 3 mEq/L is below the normal range (3.5 to 5.5 mEq/L) and indicates hypokalemia, which can potentiate the effects of digoxin. Choices A, B, and D are not directly related to the potential for digitalis toxicity. Serum digoxin level of 1.5 ng/mL is within the therapeutic range, blood pressure of 104/68 mmHg is not a contraindication for administering digoxin, and an apical pulse of 68/min is within the normal range and not a reason to withhold digoxin.

4. The nurse empties the nasogastric suction collection canister of a client who had a bowel resection the previous day and notes that 1000 ml of gastric secretions were collected in the last 4 hours. What condition is the client at risk for developing?

• A. Metabolic alkalosis
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Metabolic acidosis
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Metabolic alkalosis. Loss of gastric secretions, which contain stomach acid, can lead to metabolic alkalosis. Excessive loss of acid results in an increase in the blood pH, leading to alkalosis. Hyperkalemia (B) is an elevated potassium level and is not directly related to the loss of gastric secretions. Metabolic acidosis (C) is an acid-base imbalance characterized by low pH and bicarbonate levels, which is the opposite of what would occur with the loss of gastric secretions. Hypoglycemia (D) is low blood sugar and is not typically associated with the scenario described in the question.

5. A client with chronic heart failure is being taught by a nurse about the importance of daily weights. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Weigh yourself at the same time every day.
• B. Use the same scale for weighing each time.
• C. Record your weight in a journal or log.
• D. Report any weight gain of more than 2 to 3 pounds in a day.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with chronic heart failure is to report any weight gain of more than 2 to 3 pounds in a day. This weight gain may indicate fluid retention, which is a critical sign of worsening heart failure. Weighing at the same time every day and using the same scale for consistency are good practices, but the crucial action is to promptly report significant weight gain, as stated in option D. Recording the weight in a journal or log can be helpful for tracking trends, but immediate reporting of weight gain is essential for timely intervention in heart failure management. Therefore, option D is the most appropriate instruction for this client.

Similar Questions