HESI RN
HESI RN Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. Why is the combination drug trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) necessary?
- A. To broaden the antibacterial spectrum.
- B. To decrease bacterial resistance.
- C. To improve the taste.
- D. To minimize toxic effects.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: To decrease bacterial resistance. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) is a combination drug used to prevent bacterial resistance to sulfonamides. It works by targeting different steps in the bacterial metabolic pathway, making it harder for bacteria to develop resistance. Choice A is incorrect because the combination does not broaden the antibacterial spectrum; instead, it enhances effectiveness against specific bacteria. Choice C is incorrect as taste improvement is not the primary reason for combining these drugs. Choice D is incorrect because while combination therapy can sometimes help minimize toxic effects, the primary purpose in this case is to address bacterial resistance.
2. After delegating to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) the task of completing a bladder scan examination for a client, the nurse evaluates the UAP’s performance. Which action by the UAP indicates the nurse must provide additional instructions when delegating this task?
- A. Selecting the female icon for all female clients and the male icon for all male clients
- B. Explaining to the client, 'This test measures the amount of urine in your bladder.'
- C. Applying ultrasound gel to the scanning head and cleaning it after use
- D. Taking at least two readings using the aiming icon to position the scanning head
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the UAP should select the female icon for women who have not had a hysterectomy to allow the scanner to subtract the volume of the uterus from readings. If a woman has had a hysterectomy, the UAP should choose the male icon. Choice B is incorrect as it is essential for the UAP to explain the procedure to the client to ensure understanding. Choice C is incorrect because applying ultrasound gel to the scanning head and cleaning it after use are appropriate actions. Choice D is incorrect as it is necessary for the UAP to take at least two readings using the aiming icon to position the scanning head accurately for an effective bladder scan examination.
3. A middle-aged male client with diabetes continues to eat an abundance of foods that are high in sugar and fat. According to the Health Belief Model, which event is most likely to increase the client's willingness to become compliant with the prescribed diet?
- A. He visits his diabetic brother who just had surgery to amputate an infected foot.
- B. He is provided with the most current information about the dangers of untreated diabetes.
- C. He comments on the community service announcements about preventing complications associated with diabetes.
- D. His wife expresses a sincere willingness to prepare meals that are within his prescribed diet.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: According to the Health Belief Model, the most effective event to increase compliance with the prescribed diet for a middle-aged male client with diabetes is experiencing a significant consequence related to the disease. In this case, visiting his diabetic brother who just had surgery to amputate an infected foot would serve as a strong 'cue to action,' increasing the client's perceived seriousness of the disease. This event is likely to have a more immediate and impactful effect on the client than other options. Option B provides valuable information but may not have the same personal and emotional impact as witnessing a severe consequence firsthand. Option C involves indirect exposure to prevention messages, which might not be as compelling as a direct experience. Option D, while supportive, does not present a direct consequence of non-compliance like option A does.
4. What is the most common symptom of hypoglycemia that the nurse should teach the diabetic client to recognize?
- A. Nervousness
- B. Anorexia
- C. Kussmaul's respirations
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Nervousness is the most common symptom of hypoglycemia. It is often accompanied by other signs such as weakness, perspiration, confusion, and palpitations. Anorexia (lack of appetite) is not a typical symptom of hypoglycemia; it is more commonly associated with hyperglycemia. Kussmaul's respirations are a deep and labored breathing pattern seen in diabetic ketoacidosis, not hypoglycemia. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) is not a typical symptom of hypoglycemia; tachycardia (fast heart rate) is more commonly associated with hypoglycemia due to the release of catecholamines in response to low blood sugar.
5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic renal failure who is receiving peritoneal dialysis. Which of the following findings would indicate a complication of the treatment?
- A. Clear dialysate outflow.
- B. Cloudy dialysate outflow.
- C. Decreased urine output.
- D. Increased blood pressure.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Cloudy dialysate outflow is a sign of peritonitis, a serious complication of peritoneal dialysis that requires immediate medical attention. Peritonitis, an infection of the peritoneum, the lining of the abdominal cavity, can lead to severe complications if not treated promptly. Clear dialysate outflow is an expected finding in peritoneal dialysis, indicating proper functioning of the process. Decreased urine output is common in clients with renal failure due to impaired kidney function. Increased blood pressure may be present in renal failure but is not a direct complication of peritoneal dialysis.
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