Nursing Elites

1. The client with chronic renal failure is being taught about dietary restrictions by the nurse. Which of the following food items should the client avoid?

• A. Apples
• B. Bananas
• C. Chicken
• D. Rice

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bananas. Bananas are high in potassium, which should be limited in clients with chronic renal failure to prevent hyperkalemia. Apples (choice A), chicken (choice C), and rice (choice D) are not typically restricted in clients with chronic renal failure. Apples and rice are lower in potassium, while chicken is a good source of lean protein, which is usually encouraged in these clients to meet their protein needs without excess potassium intake.

2. A male client expresses concern about how a hypophysectomy will affect his sexual function. Which of the following statements provides the most accurate information about the physiologic effects of hypophysectomy?

• A. Removing the source of excess hormone should restore the client's libido, erectile function, and fertility.
• B. Potency will be restored, but the client will remain infertile.
• C. Fertility will be restored, but impotence and decreased libido will persist.
• D. Exogenous hormones will be needed to restore erectile function after the adenoma is removed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the most accurate statement regarding the physiologic effects of hypophysectomy on sexual function. The client's sexual problems are directly related to excessive hormone levels. Removing the source of excess hormone secretion through hypophysectomy should allow the client to return to a normal physiologic pattern, which includes restoring libido, erectile function, and fertility. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B incorrectly states that the client will remain infertile, which is not necessarily true after a hypophysectomy. Choice C inaccurately suggests that fertility will be restored while impotence and decreased libido will persist, which is not aligned with the expected outcomes of hypophysectomy. Choice D is incorrect because exogenous hormones are typically not needed to restore erectile function after the adenoma is removed; rather, the removal of the source of excessive hormone secretion should address the sexual function concerns.

3. The nurse is obtaining the admission history for a client with suspected peptic ulcer disease (PUD). Which subjective data reported by the client supports this diagnosis?

• A. Frequent use of chewable and liquid antacids for indigestion
• B. Severe abdominal cramps and diarrhea after eating spicy foods
• C. Upper mid-abdominal gnawing and burning pain
• D. Marked weight loss and appetite over the last 3 to 4 months

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Upper mid-abdominal gnawing and burning pain.' This symptom is a classic presentation of peptic ulcer disease. Antacids (choice A) may provide relief but do not confirm the diagnosis. Severe abdominal cramps and diarrhea (choice B) are more suggestive of other conditions like irritable bowel syndrome. Weight loss and appetite changes (choice D) are non-specific and could be related to various health issues.

4. A client is receiving a continuous infusion of normal saline at 125 ml/hour post abdominal surgery. The client is drowsy and complaining of constant abdominal pain and a headache. Urine output is 800 ml over the past 24 hours with a central venous pressure of 15 mmHg. The nurse notes respiratory crackles and bounding central pulse. Vital signs: temperature 101.2 F (38.4 C), heart rate 96 beats/minute, respiration 24 breaths/minute, and blood pressure of 160/90 mmHg. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Calculate total intake and output for the last 24 hours.
• B. Administer a PRN dose of acetaminophen.
• C. Decrease IV fluids to a keep vein open (KVO) rate.
• D. Review the last administration of IV pain medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is showing signs of fluid volume excess, such as drowsiness, abdominal pain, headache, crackles in the lungs, bounding pulse, and elevated blood pressure. Decreasing the IV fluids to a keep vein open (KVO) rate is crucial to prevent further fluid overload. This intervention helps in balancing fluid intake and output to prevent complications associated with fluid volume excess. Calculating total intake and output (Choice A) may be necessary but not the immediate priority in managing fluid overload. Administering acetaminophen (Choice B) may help with managing the fever but does not address the underlying issue of fluid overload. Reviewing the last administration of IV pain medication (Choice D) is not the priority in this situation where fluid overload is a concern.

5. In a patient with cirrhosis, which of the following lab results is most concerning?

• A. Elevated liver enzymes.
• B. Low albumin levels.
• C. Elevated bilirubin levels.
• D. Low platelet count.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a patient with cirrhosis, a low platelet count is the most concerning lab result. Thrombocytopenia, or low platelet count, is common in cirrhosis due to impaired platelet production in the liver. It significantly increases the risk of bleeding and can lead to serious complications such as hemorrhage. Elevated liver enzymes (Choice A) are expected in cirrhosis but may not directly indicate the severity of the disease. Low albumin levels (Choice B) are common in cirrhosis and can contribute to fluid retention but do not pose an immediate risk of bleeding. Elevated bilirubin levels (Choice C) are also expected in cirrhosis and typically indicate impaired liver function but do not directly increase the risk of bleeding as much as a low platelet count.

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