Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic renal failure is receiving sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following?

• A. Hyponatremia.
• B. Hypokalemia.
• C. Hyperkalemia.
• D. Hypocalcemia.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct Answer: The correct answer is C, 'Hyperkalemia.' Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) is a medication used to treat high potassium levels (hyperkalemia) by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the intestines, leading to potassium removal from the body. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for changes in potassium levels to assess the effectiveness of the medication and prevent potential complications related to hyperkalemia. Choice A, 'Hyponatremia,' is incorrect as Kayexalate does not primarily affect sodium levels. Choice B, 'Hypokalemia,' is incorrect as Kayexalate is used to treat high potassium levels, not low. Choice D, 'Hypocalcemia,' is incorrect as Kayexalate does not directly impact calcium levels.

2. A client is starting urinary bladder training. Which statement should the nurse include in this client’s teaching?

• A. Use the toilet when you first feel the urge, rather than at specific intervals.
• B. Try to consciously hold your urine until the scheduled toileting time.
• C. Initially try to use the toilet at least every half hour for the first 24 hours.
• D. The toileting interval can be increased once you have been continent for a week.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In urinary bladder training, the client should be taught to try to consciously hold their urine until the scheduled toileting time. This helps in training the bladder to hold urine for longer periods. Option A is incorrect because the goal is to consciously hold urine, not void immediately. Option C is incorrect as toileting at least every half hour may not promote bladder training. Option D is incorrect as increasing the toileting interval should be based on the client's comfort and progress, not just after being continent for a week.

3. A client is admitted with acute kidney injury (AKI) and a urine output of 2000 mL/day. What is the major concern of the nurse regarding this client’s care?

• A. Edema and pain
• B. Electrolyte and fluid imbalance
• C. Cardiac and respiratory status
• D. Mental health status

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The major concern for a client admitted with acute kidney injury (AKI) and a high urine output of 2000 mL/day is electrolyte and fluid imbalance. In AKI, there may be an inflammatory cause leading to proteins entering the glomerulus, resulting in fluid being held in the filtrate and causing polyuria. Electrolyte loss and fluid balance are critical to monitor and manage in AKI cases. Edema and pain are not typically associated with fluid loss. While changes in cardiac, respiratory, and mental health status can occur if electrolyte imbalance is not addressed, the primary focus should be on managing electrolyte and fluid balance to prevent further complications.

4. Which of the following lipid abnormalities is a risk factor for the development of atherosclerosis and peripheral vascular disease?

• A. Low concentration of triglycerides.
• B. High levels of high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol.
• C. High levels of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol.
• D. Low levels of LDL cholesterol.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: High levels of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol. High levels of LDL cholesterol contribute to the development of atherosclerosis and peripheral vascular disease by being deposited in the blood vessel walls, leading to the formation of plaques that can obstruct blood flow. Choice A is incorrect as a low concentration of triglycerides is not typically associated with an increased risk of atherosclerosis or PVD. Choice B is incorrect as high levels of high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol are actually considered protective against atherosclerosis as it helps remove cholesterol from arteries. Choice D is incorrect as low levels of LDL cholesterol are not typically considered a risk factor for atherosclerosis or PVD.

5. The healthcare professional is preparing to give a dose of trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) and learns that the patient takes warfarin (Coumadin). The healthcare professional will request an order for

• A. a decreased dose of TMP-SMX.
• B. a different antibiotic.
• C. an increased dose of warfarin.
• D. coagulation studies.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Sulfonamides, like trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX), can potentiate the anticoagulant effects of warfarin (Coumadin). To monitor the patient's response and prevent adverse effects, the healthcare professional should request coagulation studies, such as International Normalized Ratio (INR) levels. Choosing a decreased dose of TMP-SMX would not address the potential drug interaction between TMP-SMX and warfarin. Opting for a different antibiotic is not necessary if the interaction can be managed by monitoring. Increasing the dose of warfarin without monitoring could lead to excessive anticoagulation and adverse events, so it's not the appropriate action in this scenario.

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