HESI RN
Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet
1. The nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor closely before, during, and after the procedure?
- A. Hemoglobin level.
- B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level.
- C. Creatinine level.
- D. Serum potassium level.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Serum potassium level. Before, during, and after hemodialysis, monitoring the serum potassium level is crucial to prevent hyperkalemia, a potentially life-threatening complication. Hemodialysis is done to remove waste products and excess electrolytes like potassium from the blood. Monitoring other laboratory values like hemoglobin, BUN, and creatinine is important in assessing kidney function and anemia, but serum potassium level requires close monitoring during hemodialysis due to the risk of rapid shifts that can lead to cardiac arrhythmias.
2. What most likely led to the 67-year-old woman who lives alone tripping on a rug in her home and fracturing her hip?
- A. Failing eyesight causing an unsafe environment.
- B. Renal osteodystrophy due to chronic renal failure.
- C. Osteoporosis due to hormonal changes.
- D. Cardiovascular changes leading to small strokes impairing mental acuity.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Osteoporosis, caused by hormonal changes in later life, is the most likely predisposing factor for the fracture in the proximal end of her femur. Osteoporosis leads to reduced bone density, making bones more fragile and susceptible to fractures, especially in the elderly. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to directly lead to a hip fracture in this scenario. Failing eyesight (choice A) could contribute to the fall but is not the main predisposing factor for the fracture. Renal osteodystrophy (choice B) and cardiovascular changes (choice D) are less commonly associated with hip fractures compared to osteoporosis in elderly women.
3. The patient is receiving acetazolamide (Diamox) for metabolic alkalosis and fluid overload. After taking the medication, the patient complains of right-sided flank pain. The nurse suspects that the patient has developed which condition?
- A. Gout
- B. Hemolytic anemia
- C. Metabolic acidosis
- D. Renal calculi
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Renal calculi. Acetazolamide, a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, can lead to electrolyte imbalances and the formation of renal calculi. Right-sided flank pain is a classic symptom of renal calculi. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Gout is not typically associated with acetazolamide use. Hemolytic anemia and metabolic acidosis are not commonly linked to acetazolamide-induced side effects. Therefore, the patient's symptoms align more closely with the development of renal calculi.
4. What information will the nurse provide when counseling a patient starting a sulfonamide drug for a urinary tract infection?
- A. Drink several quarts of water daily.
- B. If stomach upset occurs, avoid taking antacids.
- C. Limit sun exposure to avoid skin reactions.
- D. Report any sore throat promptly.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Drink several quarts of water daily. This advice aims to prevent crystalluria, a potential side effect of sulfonamide drugs. Option B is incorrect because antacids should not be taken with sulfonamides as they can decrease drug absorption. Option C is incorrect as sulfonamides can increase sensitivity to sunlight, not requiring sun exposure limitations but sun protection measures. Option D is incorrect because a sore throat could indicate a more serious adverse effect and should be promptly reported for evaluation.
5. A CD4+ lymphocyte count is performed on a client infected with HIV. The results of the test indicate a CD4+ count of 450 cells/L. The nurse interprets this test result as indicating:
- A. Improvement in the client
- B. The need for antiretroviral therapy
- C. The need to discontinue antiretroviral therapy
- D. An effective response to the treatment for HIV
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A CD4+ count of 450 cells/L is below the normal range (500-1600 cells/mcL), indicating a decline in immune function in the client. Antiretroviral therapy is recommended when the CD4+ count falls below 500 cells/mcL or below 25%, or when the client displays symptoms of HIV. Therefore, the interpretation of this test result suggests that the client requires antiretroviral therapy to manage the HIV infection. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a CD4+ count of 450 cells/L does not signify improvement, discontinuation of therapy, or an effective response to treatment for HIV.
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