HESI RN
Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet
1. The nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor closely before, during, and after the procedure?
- A. Hemoglobin level.
- B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level.
- C. Creatinine level.
- D. Serum potassium level.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Serum potassium level. Before, during, and after hemodialysis, monitoring the serum potassium level is crucial to prevent hyperkalemia, a potentially life-threatening complication. Hemodialysis is done to remove waste products and excess electrolytes like potassium from the blood. Monitoring other laboratory values like hemoglobin, BUN, and creatinine is important in assessing kidney function and anemia, but serum potassium level requires close monitoring during hemodialysis due to the risk of rapid shifts that can lead to cardiac arrhythmias.
2. The healthcare provider is assessing a client undergoing peritoneal dialysis. Which of the following findings should be reported immediately to the physician?
- A. Clear dialysate outflow.
- B. Clear dialysate inflow.
- C. Cloudy dialysate outflow.
- D. Increased blood pressure.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Cloudy dialysate outflow should be reported immediately to the physician as it is a concerning sign of peritonitis, a severe infection of the peritoneum. Peritonitis is a serious complication of peritoneal dialysis that requires prompt medical intervention to prevent further complications. Clear dialysate outflow and inflow are normal findings in peritoneal dialysis and do not indicate an immediate need for intervention. Increased blood pressure, while important to monitor, is not directly related to peritoneal dialysis and would not be the priority over the potentially life-threatening complication of peritonitis.
3. The healthcare professional is reviewing a patient’s chart prior to administering gentamicin (Garamycin) and notes that the last serum peak drug level was 9 mcg/mL and the last trough level was 2 mcg/mL. What action will the healthcare professional take?
- A. Administer the next dose as prescribed.
- B. Obtain repeat peak and trough levels before administering the next dose.
- C. Report potential drug toxicity to the patient’s healthcare provider.
- D. Notify the patient’s healthcare provider of decreased drug therapeutic level.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Gentamicin peak levels should ideally be between 5 to 8 mcg/mL, and trough levels should be within the range of 0.5 to 2 mcg/mL to ensure therapeutic efficacy while minimizing toxicity risk. In this case, the patient's peak level is above the recommended range, and the trough level is at the higher end, indicating potential drug toxicity. Therefore, the correct action for the healthcare professional is to report the possibility of drug toxicity to the patient’s healthcare provider. Administering the next dose as prescribed (Choice A) would exacerbate the toxicity risk. Obtaining repeat peak and trough levels (Choice B) may confirm the current levels but does not address the immediate concern of potential toxicity. Reporting a decreased drug therapeutic level (Choice D) is not the priority in this scenario, as the focus should be on addressing the potential toxicity issue.
4. Which of the following lab values would be most concerning in a patient receiving heparin therapy?
- A. Elevated hemoglobin levels.
- B. Low platelet count.
- C. High potassium levels.
- D. Low sodium levels.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A low platelet count is most concerning in patients receiving heparin therapy due to the risk of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia. Heparin can sometimes cause a drop in platelet count, leading to a potentially serious condition where blood does not clot as it should. This can result in excessive bleeding or clot formation in blood vessels. Elevated hemoglobin levels, high potassium levels, and low sodium levels are not typically associated with heparin therapy and are less likely to cause immediate concerns or complications in this context.
5. The nurse is preparing to give a dose of oral clindamycin (Cleocin) to a patient being treated for a skin infection caused by Staphylococcus aureus. The patient has experienced nausea after several doses. What should the nurse do next?
- A. Administer the next dose when the patient has an empty stomach.
- B. Hold the next dose and contact the patient’s provider.
- C. Instruct the patient to take the next dose with a full glass of water.
- D. Request an order for an antacid to give along with the next dose.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to instruct the patient to take the next dose of clindamycin with a full glass of water. This is important to minimize gastrointestinal (GI) irritation such as nausea, vomiting, and stomatitis that the patient has been experiencing. Administering the medication on an empty stomach would likely worsen the GI upset. Holding the next dose and contacting the provider is not necessary at this point unless symptoms persist or worsen. Additionally, requesting an antacid is not indicated as the primary intervention for managing the nausea related to clindamycin.
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