HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet
1. A client who has heart failure is admitted with a serum potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Administer 20 mEq of potassium chloride.
 - B. Initiate continuous cardiac monitoring.
 - C. Arrange a consultation with the dietitian.
 - D. Educate about the side effects of diuretics.
 
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Hypokalemia, defined as a serum potassium level below the normal range of 3.5 to 5 mEq/L, can lead to changes in myocardial irritability and ECG waveform, potentially causing life-threatening dysrhythmias. Therefore, the priority action for the nurse is to initiate continuous cardiac monitoring to promptly detect any abnormal heart rhythms or ventricular ectopy. This monitoring is crucial for assessing the impact of potassium replacement therapy on the cardiac rhythm and ensuring the safety of the client. While administering potassium chloride is important for correcting the hypokalemia, it should occur after cardiac monitoring is in place. Consulting with a dietitian and educating about diuretic side effects are relevant aspects of care but are not the immediate priority in this situation where cardiac monitoring takes precedence for timely intervention.
2. The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who is receiving prednisone 5 mg PO daily for a rash due to contact with poison ivy. Which symptoms should the nurse tell the client to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Rapid weight gain
 - B. Abdominal striae
 - C. Moon faces
 - D. Gastric irritation
 
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Rapid weight gain can indicate fluid retention, which is a serious side effect of prednisone and should be reported.
3. The nurse instructs the unlicensed nursing personnel (UAP) on how to provide oral hygiene for clients who cannot perform this task for themselves. Which of the following techniques should the nurse tell the UAP to incorporate into the client's daily care?
- A. Assess the oral cavity each time mouth care is given and record observations.
 - B. Use a soft toothbrush to brush the client's teeth after each meal.
 - C. Swab the client's tongue, gums, and lips with a soft foam applicator every 2 hours.
 - D. Rinse the client's mouth with mouthwash several times a day.
 
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct technique to incorporate into the client's daily care for oral hygiene is to use a soft toothbrush to brush the client's teeth after each meal. This helps in maintaining oral hygiene for clients who cannot perform this task themselves. Choice A is incorrect because assessing the oral cavity each time mouth care is given is important but not the technique to incorporate into daily care. Choice C is incorrect as swabbing the tongue, gums, and lips every 2 hours may not be necessary for daily care. Choice D is incorrect as rinsing the client's mouth with mouthwash several times a day may not be suitable for all clients and is not a standard recommendation for daily oral care.
4. The client with chronic renal failure is being taught about the importance of fluid restrictions. Which of the following statements by the client indicates that the teaching has been effective?
- A. I can drink as much fluid as I want, as long as I take my medication.
 - B. I will need to limit my fluid intake to prevent fluid overload.
 - C. I can drink as much water as I want, as long as I limit other fluids.
 - D. I will need to drink only when I am thirsty.
 
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'I will need to limit my fluid intake to prevent fluid overload.' In chronic renal failure, fluid restrictions are crucial to prevent fluid overload and further damage to the kidneys. Option A is incorrect as unrestricted fluid intake can worsen the condition. Option C is also incorrect as total fluid intake needs to be restricted, not just other fluids. Option D is not ideal because thirst may not accurately reflect the body's fluid needs in chronic renal failure.
5. A middle-aged adult with a family history of CAD has the following: total cholesterol 198 (11 mmol/L); LDL cholesterol 120 (6.7 mmol/L); HDL cholesterol 58 (3.2 mmol/L); triglycerides 148 (8.2 mmol/L); blood sugar 102 (5.7 mmol/L); and C-reactive protein (CRP) 4.2. The health care provider prescribes a statin medication and aspirin. The client asks the nurse why these medications are needed. Which is the best response by the nurse?
- A. The labs indicate severe hyperlipidemia and the medications will lower your LDL, along with a low-fat diet.
 - B. The triglycerides are elevated and will not return to normal without these medications.
 - C. The CRP is elevated indicating inflammation seen in cardiovascular disease, which can be lowered by the medications prescribed.
 - D. These medications will reduce the risk of type 2 diabetes.
 
Correct answer: C
Rationale: CRP is a marker of inflammation, which is elevated in cardiovascular disease. Statins and aspirin help lower CRP and reduce the risk of heart attacks and strokes.
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