Nursing Elites

1. The nurse instructs the unlicensed nursing personnel (UAP) on how to provide oral hygiene for clients who cannot perform this task for themselves. Which of the following techniques should the nurse tell the UAP to incorporate into the client's daily care?

• A. Assess the oral cavity each time mouth care is given and record observations.
• B. Use a soft toothbrush to brush the client's teeth after each meal.
• C. Swab the client's tongue, gums, and lips with a soft foam applicator every 2 hours.
• D. Rinse the client's mouth with mouthwash several times a day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct technique to incorporate into the client's daily care for oral hygiene is to use a soft toothbrush to brush the client's teeth after each meal. This helps in maintaining oral hygiene for clients who cannot perform this task themselves. Choice A is incorrect because assessing the oral cavity each time mouth care is given is important but not the technique to incorporate into daily care. Choice C is incorrect as swabbing the tongue, gums, and lips every 2 hours may not be necessary for daily care. Choice D is incorrect as rinsing the client's mouth with mouthwash several times a day may not be suitable for all clients and is not a standard recommendation for daily oral care.

2. A young adult is burned when wearing a shirt that was splashed with lighter fluid and caught on fire while attempting to light a charcoal grill. The client ripped off the shirt immediately, without unbuttoning the sleeves, which caused circumferential burns to both wrists. When the client is admitted, which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Monitor pulse intensity.
• B. Evaluate extremity sensation.
• C. Assess range of motion.
• D. Place sterile bandage on both wrists.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring pulse intensity is the priority to ensure circulation is not compromised due to circumferential burns.

3. A client has a serum potassium level of 6.5 mmol/L, a serum creatinine level of 2 mg/dL, and a urine output of 350 mL/day. What is the best action by the nurse?

• A. Place the client on a cardiac monitor immediately.
• B. Teach the client to limit high-potassium foods.
• C. Continue to monitor the client’s intake and output.
• D. Ask to have the laboratory redraw the blood specimen.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best immediate action by the nurse in this situation is to place the client on a cardiac monitor immediately. A serum potassium level of 6.5 mmol/L indicates hyperkalemia, which can lead to life-threatening dysrhythmias. Monitoring the cardiac status is crucial to detect any potential arrhythmias promptly. Teaching the client to limit high-potassium foods (Choice B) may be important for long-term management, but it is not the priority at this moment. Continuing to monitor intake and output (Choice C) is important for assessing renal function but does not address the immediate risk of dysrhythmias. Asking to have the laboratory redraw the blood specimen (Choice D) is unnecessary since the current results indicate a critical situation that requires immediate action.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic renal failure who is receiving hemodialysis. Which of the following findings would indicate that the client is experiencing a complication of the treatment?

• A. Clear dialysate outflow.
• B. Blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg.
• C. Increased heart rate.
• D. Fatigue.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg during hemodialysis may indicate fluid overload or an ineffective dialysis session, which can lead to complications such as heart failure or pulmonary edema. This finding should be reported promptly for further evaluation and intervention. Clear dialysate outflow is a normal and expected finding during hemodialysis, indicating proper filtration of waste products. Increased heart rate can be a normal compensatory response to hemodialysis due to fluid shifts and should be monitored but does not necessarily indicate a complication. Fatigue is a common symptom in clients with chronic renal failure undergoing hemodialysis and is not specific to complications of the treatment.

5. A client is unsure of the decision to undergo peritoneal dialysis (PD) and wishes to discuss the advantages of this treatment with the nurse. Which statements by the nurse are accurate regarding PD? (Select all that apply.)

• A. You will not need vascular access to perform PD.
• B. There is less restriction of protein and fluids.
• C. You have flexible scheduling for the exchanges.
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, as all the statements are accurate advantages of peritoneal dialysis (PD). Peritoneal dialysis does not require vascular access, offers less restriction on protein and fluids, and provides flexibility in scheduling for the exchanges. Choice A is correct because one of the advantages of PD is not needing vascular access, which is required in hemodialysis. Choice B is correct because PD allows for less dietary restriction compared to hemodialysis. Choice C is correct because PD allows for flexible scheduling of exchanges, providing more independence to the individual undergoing treatment.

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