Nursing Elites

1. In a client with congestive heart failure, the nurse would be correct in withholding a dose of digoxin without specific instruction from the healthcare provider if the client's

• A. serum digoxin level is 1.5 ng/mL.
• B. blood pressure is 104/68 mmHg.
• C. serum potassium level is 3 mEq/L.
• D. apical pulse is 68/min.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Hypokalemia can precipitate digitalis toxicity in individuals on digoxin, increasing the risk of dangerous dysrhythmias. A serum potassium level of 3 mEq/L is below the normal range (3.5 to 5.5 mEq/L) and indicates hypokalemia, which can potentiate the effects of digoxin. Choices A, B, and D are not directly related to the potential for digitalis toxicity. Serum digoxin level of 1.5 ng/mL is within the therapeutic range, blood pressure of 104/68 mmHg is not a contraindication for administering digoxin, and an apical pulse of 68/min is within the normal range and not a reason to withhold digoxin.

2. What is the most important content for the nurse to include in discharge teaching for a 51-year-old truck driver who smokes two packs of cigarettes a day, is 30 pounds overweight, and has been diagnosed with a gastric ulcer?

• A. Information about smoking cessation.
• B. Diet instructions for a low-residue diet.
• C. Instructions on a weight-loss program.
• D. The importance of increasing milk in the diet.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Information about smoking cessation. Smoking is a significant risk factor for ulcer formation. It is crucial for the nurse to include smoking cessation information in the discharge teaching to help manage the gastric ulcer and prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are less relevant in this scenario. While diet modifications may be beneficial, addressing smoking cessation takes precedence due to its direct correlation with ulcer development.

3. In the change-of-shift report, the nurse is told that a client has a Stage 2 pressure ulcer. Which ulcer appearance is most likely to be observed?

• A. Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.
• B. A deep pocket of infection and necrotic tissues.
• C. An area of erythema that is painful to touch.
• D. Visible subcutaneous tissue with sloughing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A Stage 2 pressure ulcer typically presents as a shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed. This appearance is characteristic of a Stage 2 pressure ulcer where there is partial thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and possibly the dermis. Choice B, a deep pocket of infection and necrotic tissues, is more indicative of a Stage 3 or Stage 4 pressure ulcer where the ulcer extends into deeper tissue layers. Choice C, an area of erythema that is painful to touch, is more commonly seen in early-stage pressure ulcers such as Stage 1. Choice D, visible subcutaneous tissue with sloughing, is characteristic of a more severe stage of pressure ulcer beyond Stage 2.

4. The nurse is monitoring a client with chronic renal failure who is receiving hemodialysis. The nurse should report which of the following findings immediately?

• A. Clear dialysate outflow.
• B. Weight gain of 2 lbs (0.9 kg) since the last treatment.
• C. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
• D. Pulse rate of 72 bpm.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Weight gain of 2 lbs (0.9 kg) since the last treatment is concerning in a client undergoing hemodialysis with chronic renal failure as it may indicate fluid overload. This finding requires immediate reporting and intervention to prevent complications such as fluid retention, pulmonary edema, or exacerbation of heart failure. Choices A, C, and D are not findings that require immediate attention in this context. Clear dialysate outflow is a normal finding during hemodialysis, a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg is within a normal range for many clients, and a pulse rate of 72 bpm is also within the expected range for most individuals.

5. Which lab result would be most indicative of renal failure?

• A. Elevated creatinine levels.
• B. Low potassium levels.
• C. Low calcium levels.
• D. High sodium levels.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Elevated creatinine levels. Creatinine is a waste product that is normally filtered by the kidneys. Elevated creatinine levels indicate impaired kidney function, which is commonly seen in renal failure. Choice B, low potassium levels, is not typically associated with renal failure. In fact, renal failure is more likely to cause high potassium levels due to the kidneys' inability to excrete potassium effectively. Choice C, low calcium levels, are not directly indicative of renal failure. Renal failure can lead to disturbances in calcium levels, but low calcium levels alone are not a specific marker for renal failure. Choice D, high sodium levels, are also not typically associated with renal failure. In renal failure, there may be disturbances in sodium levels, but high sodium levels alone are not a direct indicator of renal failure.

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