Nursing Elites

1. A client has just undergone insertion of a chest tube that is attached to a closed chest drainage system. Which action should the nurse plan to take in the care of this client?

• A. Assessing the client’s chest for crepitus every 24 hours
• B. Taping the connections between the chest tube and the drainage system
• C. Adding 20 mL of sterile water to the suction control chamber every shift
• D. Recording the volume of secretions in the drainage collection chamber every 24 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in caring for a client with a chest tube connected to a closed chest drainage system is to tape the connections between the chest tube and the drainage system. This is done to prevent accidental disconnection, ensuring the system functions properly. Assessing the client’s chest for crepitus should be done more frequently than once every 24 hours to monitor for any air leaks. Adding sterile water to the suction control chamber is not necessary every shift; it should be done as needed to maintain the appropriate water level. Recording the volume of secretions in the drainage collection chamber should be done more frequently than every 24 hours, with hourly monitoring during the first 24 hours after insertion and every 8 hours thereafter to assess for changes or complications.

2. Why is lactated Ringer’s solution given to a patient experiencing vomiting and diarrhea?

• A. To increase interstitial and intracellular hydration
• B. To maintain plasma volume over time
• C. To pull water from the interstitial space into the extracellular fluid
• D. To replace water and electrolytes

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Lactated Ringer’s solution is an isotonic solution commonly used to replace water and electrolytes lost due to conditions like vomiting and diarrhea. It helps to restore fluid balance by replacing the lost volume and electrolytes. Option A is incorrect because hypotonic fluids, not lactated Ringer’s solution, increase interstitial and intracellular hydration. Option B is incorrect as colloidal solutions, not lactated Ringer’s solution, are used to maintain plasma volume over time. Option C is incorrect as hypertonic solutions, not lactated Ringer’s solution, pull water from the interstitial space into the extracellular fluid.

3. After a session of hemodialysis, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following complications of hemodialysis?

• A. Hyperkalemia.
• B. Hypotension.
• C. Infection.
• D. Fever.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'B: Hypotension.' Hypotension is a common complication of hemodialysis because fluid removal during the process can lead to a drop in blood pressure. The nurse should closely monitor the client for signs of hypotension such as dizziness, lightheadedness, or a decrease in blood pressure readings. Choice 'A: Hyperkalemia' is incorrect because hemodialysis actually helps lower potassium levels by removing excess potassium from the blood. Choice 'C: Infection' is incorrect as it is not a direct complication of hemodialysis but rather a risk associated with invasive procedures. Choice 'D: Fever' is incorrect as fever is not a typical immediate post-hemodialysis complication unless an underlying infection is present.

4. A client tells the clinic nurse about experiencing burning on urination, and assessment reveals that the client had sexual intercourse four days ago with a person who was casually met. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Observe the perineal area for a chancroid-like lesion
• B. Obtain a specimen of urethral drainage for culture
• C. Assess for perineal itching, erythema, and excoriation
• D. Identify all sexual partners in the last four days

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Obtaining a urethral drainage specimen for culture is crucial in diagnosing a potential sexually transmitted infection (STI) in this client. While assessing for perineal symptoms like itching, erythema, and excoriation (Choice C) may provide additional information, obtaining a culture is more definitive. Observing for a chancroid-like lesion (Choice A) is not as pertinent as obtaining a culture for a broader diagnostic approach. Identifying all sexual partners in the last four days (Choice D) is important for contact tracing but obtaining a specimen for culture takes priority in this scenario.

5. The client is scheduled to begin continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD). Which of the following statements by the client indicates that more teaching is required?

• A. I will need to limit my intake of protein.
• B. I can skip a dialysis session if I feel tired.
• C. I should increase my intake of potassium-rich foods.
• D. I can eat whatever I want, as long as I take my medications.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Skipping a dialysis session can lead to serious complications as it disrupts the treatment schedule and can result in the accumulation of waste products and fluid in the body. The client must understand the importance of adhering to the prescribed dialysis regimen to maintain optimal health. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because limiting protein intake, increasing potassium-rich foods, and taking medications do not pose the same risk as skipping dialysis sessions. These aspects are important in the management of peritoneal dialysis but do not outweigh the critical need for regular dialysis sessions to prevent complications.

Similar Questions