Nursing Elites

1. What is the correct procedure for performing an ophthalmoscopic examination on a client's right retina?

• A. Instruct the client to focus on a distant object behind the examiner and not move their eyes during the exam.
• B. Set the ophthalmoscope on the plus 2 to 3 lens and hold it in front of the examiner's right eye.
• C. From a distance of 12 to 15 inches and slightly to the side, shine the light into the client's pupil.
• D. For optimal visualization, keep the ophthalmoscope at least 3 inches from the client's eye.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During an ophthalmoscopic examination, the client should focus on a distant object behind the examiner to dilate the pupil, and the examiner should stand at a distance of 12-15 inches away and slightly to the side. This angle allows for better visualization of the retina. Holding the ophthalmoscope firmly against the examiner's face and shining the light into the client's pupil helps examine the retina effectively. Choice A is incorrect because the client should look at a distant object, not the examiner's nose. Choice B is incorrect as the ophthalmoscope should be directed towards the client's eye, not the examiner's eye. Choice D is incorrect because keeping the ophthalmoscope at least 3 inches away may not provide an optimal view of the retina.

2. A client with Herpes Zoster (shingles) on the thorax tells the nurse about having difficulty sleeping. What is the probable cause of this problem?

• A. Frequent cough
• B. Pain
• C. Nocturia
• D. Dyspnea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pain. Pain is a common and significant symptom of Herpes Zoster (shingles) that can result in difficulty sleeping. The pain associated with shingles can be intense and persistent, making it challenging for the client to find a comfortable position to sleep. Nocturia (choice C), which is excessive urination during the night, is not directly related to difficulty sleeping in this context. While both frequent cough (choice A) and dyspnea (choice D) can cause sleep disturbances, in a client with Herpes Zoster on the thorax, pain is the most probable cause of sleep difficulty.

3. When assessing the lower extremities of a client with peripheral vascular disease (PVD), the nurse notes bilateral ankle edema. The edema is related to:

• A. Competent venous valves.
• B. Decreased blood volume.
• C. Increase in muscular activity.
• D. Increased venous pressure.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Increased venous pressure.' In peripheral vascular disease (PVD), impaired blood flow leads to increased venous pressure in the lower extremities, causing fluid to leak out of the blood vessels and accumulate as edema. Choice A, 'Competent venous valves,' is incorrect because in PVD, the venous valves may be incompetent, contributing to venous pooling and edema. Choice B, 'Decreased blood volume,' is incorrect as PVD is associated with impaired blood flow rather than reduced blood volume. Choice C, 'Increase in muscular activity,' is incorrect as it does not directly relate to the development of edema in PVD.

4. A client who is scheduled for cardiac catheterization to rule out coronary occlusion should be informed by the nurse that:

• A. The procedure is performed in a darkened room in the radiology department
• B. It is necessary to lie quietly on a hard x-ray table for about 4 hours
• C. The room is bright and well lit, and it is best to keep the eyes closed
• D. The client may have feelings of warmth or flushing during the procedure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Before cardiac catheterization, the nurse should inform the client that the procedure is performed in a darkened room in the radiology department, not the operating room. The client should expect to lie still on an x-ray table for the duration of the procedure, not necessarily for about 4 hours. Keeping the eyes closed is not necessary as the room is usually dimly lit. The client may experience sensations of warmth or flushing during the procedure due to catheter passage and dye injection, making choice D the correct answer.

5. A nurse cares for a client with diabetes mellitus who is prescribed metformin (Glucophage) and is scheduled for an intravenous urography. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Contact the provider and recommend discontinuing the metformin.
• B. Keep the client NPO for at least 6 hours prior to the examination.
• C. Check the client’s capillary artery blood glucose and administer prescribed insulin.
• D. Administer intravenous fluids to dilute and increase the excretion of dye.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Metformin can cause lactic acidosis and renal impairment as the result of an interaction with the dye. This drug must be discontinued for 48 hours before the procedure and not started again after the procedure until urine output is well established. The client’s health care provider needs to provide alternative therapy for the client until the metformin can be resumed. Keeping the client NPO, checking the client’s blood glucose, and administering intravenous fluids should be part of the client’s plan of care, but are not the priority, as the examination should not occur while the client is still taking metformin.

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