Nursing Elites

1. What types of medications should the healthcare provider expect to administer to a client during an acute respiratory distress episode?

• A. Vasodilators and hormones.
• B. Analgesics and sedatives.
• C. Anticoagulants and expectorants.
• D. Bronchodilators and steroids.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During an acute respiratory distress episode, the priority is to widen air passages, increase air space, and reduce alveolar membrane inflammation. Therefore, the client would likely require bronchodilators to open up the airways and steroids to reduce inflammation. Vasodilators and hormones (Choice A) are not typically indicated in this situation. Analgesics and sedatives (Choice B) may be used for pain management and anxiety but are not primary treatments for respiratory distress. Anticoagulants and expectorants (Choice C) are not the main medications used during an acute respiratory distress episode and may not address the immediate needs of the client.

2. A middle-aged female client with diabetes mellitus is being treated for the third episode of acute pyelonephritis in the past year. The client asks, 'What can I do to help prevent these infections?' How should the nurse respond?

• A. Test your urine daily for the presence of ketone bodies and proteins.
• B. Use tampons rather than sanitary napkins during your menstrual period.
• C. Drink more water and empty your bladder more frequently during the day.
• D. Keep your hemoglobin A1c under 9% by controlling your blood sugar levels.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clients with long-standing diabetes mellitus are at risk for pyelonephritis due to various reasons. Elevated blood glucose levels in diabetes can lead to glucose spilling into the urine, altering the pH and creating a conducive environment for bacterial growth. Neuropathy associated with diabetes can reduce bladder tone and diminish the sensation of bladder fullness, resulting in less frequent voiding and increased risk of stasis and bacterial overgrowth. Increasing fluid intake, particularly water, and voiding regularly can help prevent stasis and microbial overgrowth. Testing urine for ketones and proteins or using tampons instead of sanitary napkins are not effective strategies for preventing pyelonephritis. Keeping the hemoglobin A1c levels below 9% is crucial for managing diabetes, but it alone does not directly prevent pyelonephritis.

3. When conducting discharge teaching for a client diagnosed with diverticulitis, which diet instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Have small, frequent meals and sit up for at least two hours after meals
• B. Eat a bland diet and avoid spicy foods
• C. Eat a high-fiber diet and increase fluid intake
• D. Eat a soft diet with increased intake of milk and milk products

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For a client diagnosed with diverticulitis, the nurse should instruct them to eat a high-fiber diet and increase fluid intake. This diet helps in managing diverticulitis by promoting bowel regularity and preventing complications such as diverticular inflammation or infection. Choice A of having small, frequent meals and sitting up for at least two hours after meals may be beneficial for gastroesophageal reflux disease but is not specific to diverticulitis. Choice B of eating a bland diet and avoiding spicy foods is not the preferred recommendation for diverticulitis management. Choice D of eating a soft diet with increased intake of milk and milk products may not provide enough fiber to aid in diverticulitis management, and the increased intake of dairy products may worsen symptoms in some individuals.

4. The nurse is preparing to give a dose of a cephalosporin medication to a patient who has been receiving the antibiotic for 2 weeks. The nurse notes ulcers on the patient’s tongue and buccal mucosa. Which action will the nurse take?

• A. Hold the drug and notify the provider.
• B. Obtain an order to culture the oral lesions.
• C. Gather emergency equipment to prepare for anaphylaxis.
• D. Report a possible superinfection side effect of the cephalosporin.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should report a possible superinfection side effect of the cephalosporin to the physician as the patient's symptoms may indicate a superinfection that requires treatment. Holding the drug is not necessary unless directed by the provider. Culturing the lesions is not indicated for this situation. There is no evidence to suggest impending anaphylaxis based on the patient's symptoms.

5. Which of the following symptoms would a healthcare provider expect to find in a patient with hyperkalemia?

• A. Muscle cramps.
• B. Hypertension.
• C. Bradycardia.
• D. Tachycardia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Tachycardia is the correct symptom to expect in a patient with hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia, or high potassium levels in the blood, can affect the electrical activity of the heart. Increased potassium levels can lead to changes in the heart's rhythm, potentially causing tachycardia (rapid heart rate) or other cardiac arrhythmias. Muscle cramps (choice A) are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. Hypertension (choice B) is not a common symptom of hyperkalemia; in fact, high potassium levels can sometimes cause low blood pressure. Bradycardia (choice C), or a slow heart rate, is usually not a primary symptom of hyperkalemia; instead, hyperkalemia tends to be associated with faster heart rates or arrhythmias.

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