HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet
1. What types of medications should the healthcare provider expect to administer to a client during an acute respiratory distress episode?
- A. Vasodilators and hormones.
- B. Analgesics and sedatives.
- C. Anticoagulants and expectorants.
- D. Bronchodilators and steroids.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During an acute respiratory distress episode, the priority is to widen air passages, increase air space, and reduce alveolar membrane inflammation. Therefore, the client would likely require bronchodilators to open up the airways and steroids to reduce inflammation. Vasodilators and hormones (Choice A) are not typically indicated in this situation. Analgesics and sedatives (Choice B) may be used for pain management and anxiety but are not primary treatments for respiratory distress. Anticoagulants and expectorants (Choice C) are not the main medications used during an acute respiratory distress episode and may not address the immediate needs of the client.
2. After checking the urinary drainage system for kinks in the tubing, the nurse determines that a client who has returned from the post-anesthesia care has a dark, concentrated urinary output of 54 ml for the last 2 hours. What priority nursing action should be implemented?
- A. Report the findings to the surgeon.
- B. Irrigate the indwelling urinary catheter.
- C. Apply manual pressure to the bladder.
- D. Increase the IV flow rate for 15 minutes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this situation, the nurse's priority action should be to report the findings to the surgeon. An adult should typically produce about 60 ml of urine per hour, so a dark, concentrated, and low urine output of 54 ml over 2 hours raises concerns. This change in urine output may indicate issues such as dehydration, renal problems, or inadequate fluid intake. Reporting this finding to the surgeon is crucial to ensure appropriate evaluation and intervention. Irrigating the catheter, applying manual pressure to the bladder, or increasing the IV flow rate are not appropriate actions based on the information provided and could potentially worsen the situation.
3. A client with gouty arthritis reports tenderness and swelling of the right ankle and great toe. The nurse observes the area of inflammation extends above the ankle. The client receives prescriptions for colchicine and indomethacin. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
- A. Eat high-protein foods to achieve ideal body weight
- B. Drink at least 8 cups (1920mL) of water per day
- C. Use an electric heating pad when pain is at its worst
- D. Encourage active range of motion to prevent stiffness
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to drink at least 8 cups (1920mL) of water per day. Adequate hydration helps to prevent the formation of uric acid crystals, which can exacerbate gout symptoms. Choice A is incorrect because while maintaining a healthy weight is important, it doesn't directly address gout management. Choice C is incorrect because using an electric heating pad can worsen inflammation. Choice D is incorrect because active range of motion may exacerbate pain and inflammation in the affected joints.
4. A healthcare professional assesses clients on the medical-surgical unit. Which client is at greatest risk for the development of bacterial cystitis?
- A. A 36-year-old female who has never been pregnant
- B. A 42-year-old male who is prescribed cyclophosphamide
- C. A 58-year-old female who is not taking estrogen replacement
- D. A 77-year-old male with mild congestive heart failure
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Females are at higher risk of developing bacterial cystitis due to their shorter urethra compared to males. Postmenopausal women not on estrogen replacement therapy are particularly susceptible to cystitis because of changes in vaginal and urethral cells. This increases the risk of bacterial infection. The other options do not have the same level of risk as the postmenopausal woman not using hormone replacement therapy. A never-pregnant middle-aged woman does not have the same increased risk as a postmenopausal woman with hormonal changes.
5. The nurse assesses a client with advanced cirrhosis of the liver for signs of hepatic encephalopathy. Which finding would the nurse consider an indication of progressive hepatic encephalopathy?
- A. An increase in abdominal girth.
- B. Hypertension and a bounding pulse.
- C. Decreased bowel sounds.
- D. Difficulty in handwriting.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Difficulty in handwriting is a common early sign of hepatic encephalopathy. Changes in handwriting can indicate progression or reversal of hepatic encephalopathy leading to coma. Choice (A) is a sign of ascites, not hepatic encephalopathy. Hypertension and a bounding pulse (Choice B) are not typically associated with hepatic encephalopathy. Decreased bowel sounds (Choice C) do not directly indicate an increase in serum ammonia level, which is the primary cause of hepatic encephalopathy.
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