Nursing Elites

1. A client has the following arterial blood gas (ABG) results: pH 7.51, PCO2 31 mm Hg, PO2 94 mm Hg, HCO3 24 mEq/L. Which of the following acid-base disturbances does the nurse recognize in these results?

• A. Metabolic acidosis
• B. Metabolic alkalosis
• C. Respiratory acidosis
• D. Respiratory alkalosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The ABG results show a pH above the normal range (7.35-7.45) and a decreased PCO2, indicating respiratory alkalosis. In respiratory alkalosis, the pH is increased and the PCO2 is decreased. Metabolic acidosis (choice A) would present with a low pH and low HCO3 levels. Metabolic alkalosis (choice B) would show an increased pH and HCO3 levels. Respiratory acidosis (choice C) would have a low pH and an increased PCO2.

2. The nurse empties the nasogastric suction collection canister of a client who had a bowel resection the previous day and notes that 1000 ml of gastric secretions were collected in the last 4 hours. What condition is the client at risk for developing?

• A. Metabolic alkalosis
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Metabolic acidosis
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Metabolic alkalosis. Loss of gastric secretions, which contain stomach acid, can lead to metabolic alkalosis. Excessive loss of acid results in an increase in the blood pH, leading to alkalosis. Hyperkalemia (B) is an elevated potassium level and is not directly related to the loss of gastric secretions. Metabolic acidosis (C) is an acid-base imbalance characterized by low pH and bicarbonate levels, which is the opposite of what would occur with the loss of gastric secretions. Hypoglycemia (D) is low blood sugar and is not typically associated with the scenario described in the question.

3. A male client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is refusing to take his medication and has missed two hemodialysis appointments. What is the best initial action for the nurse?

• A. Discuss what the treatment regimen means to him.
• B. Refer the client to a mental health nurse practitioner.
• C. Reschedule the appointments to another date and time.
• D. Discuss the option of peritoneal dialysis.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best initial action for the nurse in this scenario is to have a discussion with the client about what the treatment regimen means to him. It is important to assess the client's anxiety, coping styles, and acceptance of the required treatment for CKD. The client may be in denial of the diagnosis or may have concerns that need to be addressed. While rescheduling hemodialysis appointments could be helpful, referring the client to a mental health nurse practitioner or discussing peritoneal dialysis are not the most appropriate first steps. Understanding the client's perspective and concerns is crucial before exploring other interventions.

4. An emergency department nurse assesses a client with kidney trauma and notes that the client’s abdomen is tender and distended, and blood is visible at the urinary meatus. Which prescription should the nurse consult the provider about before implementation?

• A. Assessing vital signs every 15 minutes
• B. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter
• C. Administering intravenous fluids at 125 mL/hr
• D. Typing and crossmatching for blood products

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with kidney trauma and blood visible at the urinary meatus, inserting a urinary catheter via the urethra should be avoided until further diagnostic studies are completed to prevent potential urethral tears. The nurse should consult the provider about the need for a catheter; if necessary, a suprapubic catheter can be used instead. Assessing vital signs every 15 minutes is important for continuous monitoring of the client's condition. Administering intravenous fluids at 125 mL/hr is crucial to maintain hydration and support kidney function. Typing and crossmatching for blood products is necessary in case the client requires blood transfusion due to potential blood loss from the trauma.

5. Polyethylene glycol–electrolyte solution (GoLYTELY) is prescribed for a hospitalized client scheduled for a colonoscopy. The client begins to experience diarrhea after drinking the solution. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?

• A. Calling the physician
• B. Administering a cleansing enema
• C. Documenting the diarrhea in the medical record
• D. Giving intravenous replacement fluids in large amounts

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action by the nurse in this situation is to document the diarrhea in the medical record. Polyethylene glycol–electrolyte solution (GoLYTELY) is a bowel evacuant used to cleanse the bowel before a colonoscopy. It is expected to cause mild diarrhea, which is a normal response to the medication. The diarrhea helps clear the bowel in preparation for the procedure. Calling the physician is not necessary unless there are complications. Administering a cleansing enema or giving intravenous replacement fluids in large amounts are not appropriate actions as they are not indicated for managing the expected diarrhea caused by GoLYTELY.

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