a client reports for a scheduled electroencephalogram eeg which statement by the client indicates a need for additional preparation for the test
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam

1. A client reports for a scheduled electroencephalogram (EEG). Which statement by the client indicates a need for additional preparation for the test?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. For an EEG, it is essential that the client's hair is clean, without any products like hairspray or gel, to ensure good electrode contact with the scalp. Choice B is not a concern as having breakfast is allowed before the test. Choice C, not taking an anticonvulsant, might be required for certain types of EEGs to capture accurate brain activity. Choice D, not drinking coffee, is not a specific requirement for an EEG preparation.

2. A client has had a pulmonary artery catheter inserted. In performing hemodynamic monitoring with the catheter, the nurse will wedge the catheter to gain information about which of the following?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Left end-diastolic pressure. Wedging the pulmonary artery catheter allows the nurse to obtain the pulmonary artery wedge pressure, which reflects the left end-diastolic pressure. This pressure is essential in assessing left ventricular function and diagnosing conditions like heart failure. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because wedging the catheter does not directly provide information about cardiac output, right atrial blood flow, or cardiac index.

3. Which of the following is a primary intervention for a patient with sepsis?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Monitoring blood cultures is a primary intervention for a patient with sepsis because it helps identify the causative organism, which is crucial in guiding appropriate antibiotic therapy. Administering antibiotics (Choice A) is important in treating sepsis but is considered a secondary intervention. Administering IV fluids (Choice B) is also crucial for sepsis management to restore perfusion and hemodynamic stability. Administering antipyretics (Choice C) may help reduce fever, but it is not a primary intervention for managing sepsis.

4. Which of the following is the most appropriate diet for a client during the acute phase of myocardial infarction?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During the acute phase of myocardial infarction, it is recommended to provide small, easily digested meals for the client. This type of diet is better tolerated as it reduces the workload on the heart, allowing for easier digestion and absorption of nutrients. Choice A, 'Liquids as desired,' may not provide adequate nutrition and may not be well-balanced. Choice C, 'Three regular meals per day,' may be too heavy for the client's weakened condition. Choice D, 'Nothing by mouth,' is not appropriate as the client still requires essential nutrients for recovery.

5. The charge nurse of the medical-surgical unit is making staff assignments. Which staff member should be assigned to a client with chronic kidney disease who is exhibiting a low-grade fever and a pericardial friction rub?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client is exhibiting symptoms of pericarditis, which can occur with chronic kidney disease. Continuity of care is crucial to assess subtle changes in clients' conditions. Therefore, the registered nurse (RN) who previously cared for this client should be assigned again. Float nurses may lack knowledge of the unit and its clients, potentially leading to oversight of critical details. The licensed practical nurse, while experienced, may not possess the advanced assessment skills and education level of an RN to effectively evaluate and manage pericarditis in this client.

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