HESI RN
Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. A client reports for a scheduled electroencephalogram (EEG). Which statement by the client indicates a need for additional preparation for the test?
- A. I didn’t shampoo my hair.
- B. I ate breakfast this morning.
- C. I didn’t take my anticonvulsant today.
- D. It was hard not to drink coffee this morning, but I knew that I couldn’t, so I didn’t.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. For an EEG, it is essential that the client's hair is clean, without any products like hairspray or gel, to ensure good electrode contact with the scalp. Choice B is not a concern as having breakfast is allowed before the test. Choice C, not taking an anticonvulsant, might be required for certain types of EEGs to capture accurate brain activity. Choice D, not drinking coffee, is not a specific requirement for an EEG preparation.
2. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic renal failure who is receiving peritoneal dialysis. Which of the following findings would indicate a complication of the treatment?
- A. Clear dialysate outflow.
- B. Cloudy dialysate outflow.
- C. Decreased urine output.
- D. Increased blood pressure.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Cloudy dialysate outflow is a sign of peritonitis, a serious complication of peritoneal dialysis that requires immediate medical attention. Peritonitis, an infection of the peritoneum, the lining of the abdominal cavity, can lead to severe complications if not treated promptly. Clear dialysate outflow is an expected finding in peritoneal dialysis, indicating proper functioning of the process. Decreased urine output is common in clients with renal failure due to impaired kidney function. Increased blood pressure may be present in renal failure but is not a direct complication of peritoneal dialysis.
3. A nurse cares for a client with diabetes mellitus who is prescribed metformin (Glucophage) and is scheduled for an intravenous urography. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Contact the provider and recommend discontinuing the metformin.
- B. Keep the client NPO for at least 6 hours prior to the examination.
- C. Check the client’s capillary artery blood glucose and administer prescribed insulin.
- D. Administer intravenous fluids to dilute and increase the excretion of dye.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Metformin can cause lactic acidosis and renal impairment as the result of an interaction with the dye. This drug must be discontinued for 48 hours before the procedure and not started again after the procedure until urine output is well established. The client’s health care provider needs to provide alternative therapy for the client until the metformin can be resumed. Keeping the client NPO, checking the client’s blood glucose, and administering intravenous fluids should be part of the client’s plan of care, but are not the priority, as the examination should not occur while the client is still taking metformin.
4. A nurse teaches a client who is recovering from a nephrectomy secondary to kidney trauma. Which statement should the nurse include in this client’s teaching?
- A. Since you only have one kidney, a salt and fluid restriction is required.
- B. Your therapy will include hemodialysis while you recover.
- C. Medication will be prescribed to control your high blood pressure.
- D. You need to avoid participating in contact sports like football.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Clients with one kidney need to avoid contact sports because the kidneys are easily injured. The client will not be required to restrict salt and fluids, end up on dialysis, or have new hypertension because of the nephrectomy.
5. The patient is taking low-dose erythromycin prophylactically and will start cefaclor for treating an acute infection. The nurse should discuss this with the provider because taking both medications simultaneously can cause which effect?
- A. Decreased effectiveness of cefaclor.
- B. Increased effectiveness of cefaclor.
- C. Decreased effectiveness of erythromycin.
- D. Increased effectiveness of erythromycin.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When erythromycin and cefaclor are taken together, erythromycin can inhibit the metabolism of cefaclor, leading to elevated cefaclor levels and potentially causing adverse effects. This results in a decrease in the effectiveness of cefaclor. Therefore, the nurse should discuss this potential drug interaction with the provider to consider an alternative treatment or adjust the dosages to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the concern lies with the effect on cefaclor when combined with erythromycin, not the effect on erythromycin itself.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access