Nursing Elites

1. A client reports for a scheduled electroencephalogram (EEG). Which statement by the client indicates a need for additional preparation for the test?

• A. I didn’t shampoo my hair.
• B. I ate breakfast this morning.
• C. I didn’t take my anticonvulsant today.
• D. It was hard not to drink coffee this morning, but I knew that I couldn’t, so I didn’t.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. For an EEG, it is essential that the client's hair is clean, without any products like hairspray or gel, to ensure good electrode contact with the scalp. Choice B is not a concern as having breakfast is allowed before the test. Choice C, not taking an anticonvulsant, might be required for certain types of EEGs to capture accurate brain activity. Choice D, not drinking coffee, is not a specific requirement for an EEG preparation.

2. Which of the following is a priority intervention for a patient with heart failure?

• A. Administering diuretics.
• B. Administering oxygen.
• C. Administering beta-blockers.
• D. Administering vasodilators.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering oxygen is a priority intervention in heart failure because it helps improve oxygenation, alleviate hypoxemia, and reduce the workload on the heart. Oxygen therapy is crucial in managing acute heart failure exacerbations. While diuretics (Choice A) are commonly used in heart failure to reduce fluid overload, administering oxygen takes precedence due to its immediate impact on oxygen delivery. Beta-blockers (Choice C) and vasodilators (Choice D) are also important in heart failure management, but in the acute setting, ensuring adequate oxygen supply is the priority.

3. Why is the combination drug trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) necessary?

• A. To broaden the antibacterial spectrum.
• B. To decrease bacterial resistance.
• C. To improve the taste.
• D. To minimize toxic effects.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: To decrease bacterial resistance. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) is a combination drug used to prevent bacterial resistance to sulfonamides. It works by targeting different steps in the bacterial metabolic pathway, making it harder for bacteria to develop resistance. Choice A is incorrect because the combination does not broaden the antibacterial spectrum; instead, it enhances effectiveness against specific bacteria. Choice C is incorrect as taste improvement is not the primary reason for combining these drugs. Choice D is incorrect because while combination therapy can sometimes help minimize toxic effects, the primary purpose in this case is to address bacterial resistance.

4. A female client is brought to the clinic by her daughter for a flu shot. She has lost significant weight since the last visit. She has poor personal hygiene and inadequate clothing for the weather. The client states that she lives alone and denies problems or concerns. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Notify social services immediately if suspected elderly abuse is present.
• B. Discuss the need for mental health counseling with the daughter.
• C. Explain to the client the importance of taking better care of herself.
• D. Collect further data to determine whether self-neglect is occurring.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the client presents with significant weight loss, poor hygiene, and inadequate clothing, which are concerning signs of self-neglect. Before taking action, it is crucial for the nurse to collect more data to determine the root cause of these issues. Jumping to conclusions or immediately involving social services without a thorough assessment could potentially harm the client or strain relationships. Discussing the need for mental health counseling with the daughter or simply advising the client to take better care of herself may not address the underlying problem of self-neglect. Therefore, the most appropriate initial action is for the nurse to collect further data to make an informed decision before taking the next steps.

5. Which of the following is the best indicator of fluid balance in a patient with heart failure?

• A. Daily weight measurements.
• B. Monitoring intake and output.
• C. Assessing skin turgor.
• D. Checking for peripheral edema.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Daily weight measurements are the best indicator of fluid balance in a patient with heart failure. Changes in weight reflect fluid retention or loss more accurately than other methods. Monitoring intake and output (choice B) is essential but may not provide a comprehensive picture of fluid status. Skin turgor (choice C) and checking for peripheral edema (choice D) are more indicative of dehydration and fluid overload, respectively, rather than overall fluid balance.

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