HESI RN
Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. A client has a long history of hypertension. Which category of medication would the nurse expect to be ordered to avoid chronic kidney disease (CKD)?
- A. Antibiotic
- B. Histamine blocker
- C. Bronchodilator
- D. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. ACE inhibitors inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor. By blocking this conversion, ACE inhibitors promote vasodilation and improve perfusion to the kidneys. Additionally, ACE inhibitors block the breakdown of bradykinin and prostaglandin, further contributing to vasodilation. They also lead to increased renin and decreased aldosterone levels. These effects help in reducing blood pressure and protecting the kidneys in clients with hypertension. Antibiotics are used to fight infections, histamine blockers reduce inflammation, and bronchodilators widen the bronchi, none of which address the underlying processes involved in slowing the progression of chronic kidney disease (CKD) in hypertensive clients.
2. A client has been scheduled for magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). For which of the following conditions, a contraindication to MRI, does the nurse check the client’s medical history?
- A. Pancreatitis
- B. Pacemaker insertion
- C. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
- D. Chronic airway limitation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pacemaker insertion. Patients with metal devices or implants are contraindicated for MRI. These include pacemakers, orthopedic hardware, artificial heart valves, aneurysm clips, and intrauterine devices. These metal objects can be affected by the strong magnetic field of the MRI, leading to serious risks for the patient. Pancreatitis (choice A), Type 1 diabetes mellitus (choice C), and chronic airway limitation (choice D) are not contraindications to MRI based on the presence of metal objects. Therefore, the nurse should be particularly concerned about pacemaker insertion when reviewing the client's medical history prior to an MRI.
3. The nurse is teaching a patient who will be discharged home from the hospital to take amoxicillin (Amoxil) twice daily for 10 days. Which statement by the nurse is correct?
- A. Discontinue the antibiotic when your temperature returns to normal and your symptoms have improved.
- B. If diarrhea occurs, stop taking the drug immediately and contact your provider.
- C. Stop taking the drug and notify your provider if you develop a rash while taking this drug.
- D. You may save any unused antibiotic to use if your symptoms recur.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Patients who develop signs of allergy, such as rash, should notify their provider before continuing medication therapy. Patients should be counseled to continue taking their antibiotics until completion of the prescribed regimen even when they feel well. Diarrhea is an adverse effect but does not warrant cessation of the drug. Before deciding to stop taking a medication due to a side effect, encourage the patient to contact the provider first. Patients should discard any unused antibiotic.
4. What types of medications should the healthcare provider expect to administer to a client during an acute respiratory distress episode?
- A. Vasodilators and hormones.
- B. Analgesics and sedatives.
- C. Anticoagulants and expectorants.
- D. Bronchodilators and steroids.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During an acute respiratory distress episode, the priority is to widen air passages, increase air space, and reduce alveolar membrane inflammation. Therefore, the client would likely require bronchodilators to open up the airways and steroids to reduce inflammation. Vasodilators and hormones (Choice A) are not typically indicated in this situation. Analgesics and sedatives (Choice B) may be used for pain management and anxiety but are not primary treatments for respiratory distress. Anticoagulants and expectorants (Choice C) are not the main medications used during an acute respiratory distress episode and may not address the immediate needs of the client.
5. An adult client is admitted with flank pain and is diagnosed with acute pyelonephritis. What is the priority nursing action?
- A. Monitor hemoglobin and hematocrit
- B. Encourage turning and deep breathing
- C. Administer IV antibiotics as prescribed
- D. Auscultate for presence of bowel sounds
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The priority nursing action for a client diagnosed with acute pyelonephritis is to administer IV antibiotics as prescribed. Acute pyelonephritis is a serious kidney infection that requires prompt antibiotic therapy to prevent systemic complications and worsening of the infection. While monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit (Choice A) is important, it is not the priority in the acute phase of infection. Encouraging turning and deep breathing (Choice B) and auscultating for bowel sounds (Choice D) are relevant aspects of care but do not take precedence over initiating antibiotic treatment to address the infection promptly.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access