HESI RN
Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. A client has a long history of hypertension. Which category of medication would the nurse expect to be ordered to avoid chronic kidney disease (CKD)?
- A. Antibiotic
- B. Histamine blocker
- C. Bronchodilator
- D. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. ACE inhibitors inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor. By blocking this conversion, ACE inhibitors promote vasodilation and improve perfusion to the kidneys. Additionally, ACE inhibitors block the breakdown of bradykinin and prostaglandin, further contributing to vasodilation. They also lead to increased renin and decreased aldosterone levels. These effects help in reducing blood pressure and protecting the kidneys in clients with hypertension. Antibiotics are used to fight infections, histamine blockers reduce inflammation, and bronchodilators widen the bronchi, none of which address the underlying processes involved in slowing the progression of chronic kidney disease (CKD) in hypertensive clients.
2. What is a priority goal for the diabetic client who is taking insulin and experiencing nausea and vomiting from a viral illness or influenza?
- A. Ensuring adequate food intake.
- B. Managing personal health.
- C. Relieving pain.
- D. Increasing physical activity.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Ensuring adequate food intake is a priority goal for a diabetic client taking insulin and experiencing nausea and vomiting due to a viral illness or influenza because maintaining proper nutrition is essential to prevent complications such as ketoacidosis. During illness, it is crucial for diabetic individuals to continue to consume appropriate amounts of food to maintain stable blood sugar levels and prevent hypoglycemia. Managing personal health (choice B) is important but not the priority in this situation. Relieving pain (choice C) may be necessary if present but is not the priority over ensuring food intake. Increasing physical activity (choice D) is not recommended during illness, especially when the individual is experiencing nausea and vomiting.
3. A postmenopausal client asks the nurse why she is experiencing discomfort during intercourse. What response is best for the nurse to provide?
- A. Estrogen deficiency causes the vaginal tissues to become dry and thinner.
- B. Infrequent intercourse results in the vaginal tissues losing their elasticity.
- C. Dehydration from inadequate fluid intake causes vulva tissue dryness.
- D. Lack of adequate stimulation is the most common reason for dyspareunia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Estrogen deficiency in postmenopausal clients leads to a decrease in the moisture-secreting capacity of vaginal cells. This results in vaginal tissues becoming thinner, drier, and smoother, which reduces vaginal stretching and contributes to discomfort during intercourse. Choice B is incorrect because the primary reason for discomfort is not infrequent intercourse but rather physiological changes due to estrogen deficiency. Choice C is incorrect as dehydration may cause dryness but is not the primary reason for discomfort in this scenario. Choice D is incorrect as lack of stimulation is not the most common reason for dyspareunia in postmenopausal clients; estrogen deficiency is the key factor.
4. A client has undergone renal angiography via the right femoral artery. The nurse determines that the client is experiencing a complication of the procedure upon noting:
- A. Urine output of 40 mL/hr
- B. Blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg
- C. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths/min
- D. Pallor and coolness of the right leg
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Pallor and coolness of the right leg indicate a potential vascular complication following renal angiography, such as hemorrhage, thrombosis, or embolism. These signs suggest impaired circulation in the affected limb. Urine output, blood pressure, and respiratory rate are not typically associated with complications of renal angiography. Complications of this procedure mainly involve allergic reactions to the dye, dye-induced renal damage, and various vascular issues.
5. A client with acute glomerulonephritis (GN) is being evaluated by a nurse. Which manifestation should the nurse recognize as a positive response to the prescribed treatment?
- A. The client has lost 11 pounds in the past 10 days.
- B. The client’s urine specific gravity is 1.048.
- C. No blood is observed in the client’s urine.
- D. The client’s blood pressure is 152/88 mm Hg.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A weight loss of 11 pounds in the past 10 days indicates fluid loss, a positive response to treatment for acute glomerulonephritis. It signifies that the glomeruli are functioning adequately to filter excess fluid. A urine specific gravity of 1.048 is high, indicating concentrated urine, which is not a positive response in this context. Blood in the urine is not a typical finding in glomerulonephritis, so its absence is expected and does not indicate a positive response to treatment. A blood pressure of 152/88 mm Hg is elevated and may suggest kidney damage or fluid overload, which are not positive responses to treatment.
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