Nursing Elites

1. A client has a long history of hypertension. Which category of medication would the nurse expect to be ordered to avoid chronic kidney disease (CKD)?

• A. Antibiotic
• B. Histamine blocker
• C. Bronchodilator
• D. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. ACE inhibitors inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor. By blocking this conversion, ACE inhibitors promote vasodilation and improve perfusion to the kidneys. Additionally, ACE inhibitors block the breakdown of bradykinin and prostaglandin, further contributing to vasodilation. They also lead to increased renin and decreased aldosterone levels. These effects help in reducing blood pressure and protecting the kidneys in clients with hypertension. Antibiotics are used to fight infections, histamine blockers reduce inflammation, and bronchodilators widen the bronchi, none of which address the underlying processes involved in slowing the progression of chronic kidney disease (CKD) in hypertensive clients.

2. The nurse assesses a client who is newly diagnosed with hyperthyroidism and observes that the client's eyeballs are protuberant, causing a wide-eyed appearance and eye discomfort. Based on this finding, which action should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?

• A. Assess for signs of increased intracranial pressure
• B. Prepare to administer intravenous levothyroxine
• C. Review the client's serum electrolyte values
• D. Obtain a prescription for artificial tear drops

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In hyperthyroidism, eye discomfort due to protuberant eyeballs (exophthalmos) can be alleviated by using artificial tear drops. These drops help prevent complications associated with dry eyes and promote comfort. Assessing for signs of increased intracranial pressure (Choice A) is not directly related to the client's eye discomfort from hyperthyroidism. Administering intravenous levothyroxine (Choice B) is not the appropriate intervention for managing eye discomfort in hyperthyroidism. Reviewing serum electrolyte values (Choice C) is important in hyperthyroidism but is not directly addressing the client's current eye discomfort and protuberant eyeballs.

3. In the change-of-shift report, the nurse is told that a client has a Stage 2 pressure ulcer. Which ulcer appearance is most likely to be observed?

• A. Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.
• B. A deep pocket of infection and necrotic tissues.
• C. An area of erythema that is painful to touch.
• D. Visible subcutaneous tissue with sloughing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A Stage 2 pressure ulcer typically presents as a shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed. This appearance is characteristic of a Stage 2 pressure ulcer where there is partial thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and possibly the dermis. Choice B, a deep pocket of infection and necrotic tissues, is more indicative of a Stage 3 or Stage 4 pressure ulcer where the ulcer extends into deeper tissue layers. Choice C, an area of erythema that is painful to touch, is more commonly seen in early-stage pressure ulcers such as Stage 1. Choice D, visible subcutaneous tissue with sloughing, is characteristic of a more severe stage of pressure ulcer beyond Stage 2.

4. The patient is taking hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL) and digoxin (Lanoxin). Which potential electrolyte imbalance will the nurse monitor for in this patient?

• A. Hypermagnesemia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Hypocalcemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypokalemia. Thiazide diuretics like hydrochlorothiazide can cause hypokalemia. Hypokalemia enhances the effects of digoxin, leading to digoxin toxicity. Thiazides can also cause hypercalcemia. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Hypermagnesemia is not typically associated with hydrochlorothiazide use. Hypernatremia and hypocalcemia are not the primary electrolyte imbalances to monitor for in this scenario.

5. The nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a patient who is newly admitted to the intensive care unit. The nurse reviews the patient’s admission electrolytes and notes a serum potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L. Which action by the nurse is correct?

• A. Administer the digoxin and monitor the patient’s electrocardiogram closely.
• B. Hold the digoxin dose and notify the provider of the patient’s lab values.
• C. Request an order for an intravenous bolus of potassium.
• D. Request an order for oral potassium supplements.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario presented, the patient has a low serum potassium level, which can predispose the patient to digoxin toxicity. It is essential for the nurse to hold the digoxin dose and promptly notify the healthcare provider of the abnormal lab values. Option A is incorrect because administering digoxin without addressing the low potassium level can potentiate toxicity. Option C is inappropriate as potassium should not be given as an IV bolus, especially in the case of hypokalemia. Option D is incorrect because oral potassium supplements may not be sufficient for rapidly correcting severe hypokalemia in an acute care setting.

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