Nursing Elites

1. A client recovering from a cystoscopy is being assessed by a nurse. Which assessment findings should alert the nurse to urgently contact the health care provider? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Decrease in urine output
• B. Blood clots present in the urine
• C. Prescription for metformin
• D. A & B

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After a cystoscopy, the nurse should monitor urine output and promptly contact the provider if there is a decrease or absence of urine output. Additionally, the nurse should assess for blood in the urine. While some pink-tinged urine may be expected, the presence of gross bleeding or blood clots warrants immediate provider notification. Tolerating oral fluids is a positive sign and does not require urgent intervention. Metformin would be a concern if the client received contrast dye, which is not used in a cystoscopy. A burning sensation when urinating is a common post-procedure experience and does not necessitate contacting the provider. Therefore, choices A and B are the correct answers as they indicate potentially serious complications that require immediate attention, while choices C and D do not align with urgent concerns following a cystoscopy.

2. A client with diabetes begins to cry and says, 'I just cannot stand the thought of having to give myself a shot every day.' Which of the following would be the best response by the nurse?

• A. If you do not give yourself your insulin shots, you will die.
• B. We can teach your daughter to give the shots so you will not have to do it.
• C. I can arrange to have a home care nurse give you the shots every day.
• D. What is it about giving yourself the insulin shots that bothers you?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct response is option D because it is an open-ended question that allows the client to express their feelings and concerns. This approach facilitates a therapeutic communication process by encouraging the client to verbalize their thoughts, emotions, and fears related to giving themselves insulin shots. Option A is incorrect as it uses a fear-inducing statement that may not be helpful in addressing the client's emotional needs. Option B assumes involvement of a family member without exploring the client's feelings further. Option C offers a solution without addressing the client's underlying concerns and emotions, potentially overlooking essential aspects of client-centered care.

3. What do crackles heard on lung auscultation indicate?

• A. Cyanosis.
• B. Bronchospasm.
• C. Airway narrowing.
• D. Fluid-filled alveoli.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Crackles heard on lung auscultation are caused by the popping open of small airways that are filled with fluid. This is commonly associated with conditions such as pulmonary edema, pneumonia, or heart failure. Cyanosis (Choice A) is a bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes due to low oxygen levels in the blood, not directly related to crackles. Bronchospasm (Choice B) refers to the constriction of the airway smooth muscle, causing difficulty in breathing but does not typically produce crackles. Airway narrowing (Choice C) can lead to wheezing but is not directly linked to crackles heard on auscultation.

4. After checking the client’s gag reflex following an esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD), which action should the nurse take?

• A. Taking the client’s vital signs
• B. Giving the client a drink of water
• C. Monitoring the client for a sore throat
• D. Being alert to complaints of heartburn

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After an esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD), the nurse's priority is to assess the client's airway by checking the gag reflex. Once this assessment is done, the next step is to take the client's vital signs to monitor for any signs of complications such as bleeding or changes in respiratory status. Giving the client water immediately after the procedure may not be appropriate, as the client may still have a compromised gag reflex and is at risk for aspiration. Monitoring for a sore throat is important but not the immediate priority post-procedure. Being alert to complaints of heartburn is relevant for assessing the client's symptoms but is not the priority immediately after checking the gag reflex.

5. Which of the following is the best position for a patient experiencing dyspnea?

• A. Supine position.
• B. Fowler's position.
• C. Trendelenburg position.
• D. Lateral recumbent position.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Fowler's position is the best position for a patient experiencing dyspnea. This position involves sitting the patient upright with the head of the bed elevated between 45-60 degrees. Fowler's position helps improve breathing in patients with dyspnea by promoting lung expansion, aiding in better oxygenation, and reducing the work of breathing. The supine position (Choice A) may worsen dyspnea by limiting lung expansion. The Trendelenburg position (Choice C) with the feet elevated and the head down is not recommended for dyspnea as it can increase pressure on the chest and compromise breathing. The lateral recumbent position (Choice D) is not ideal for dyspnea as it does not provide optimal lung expansion and may not alleviate breathing difficulty.

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