Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is providing discharge teaching for a patient who will receive oral levofloxacin (Levaquin) to treat pneumonia. The patient takes an oral hypoglycemic medication and uses over-the-counter (OTC) antacids to treat occasional heartburn. The patient reports frequent arthritis pain and takes acetaminophen when needed. Which statement by the nurse is correct when teaching this patient?

• A. You may take antacids with levofloxacin to decrease gastrointestinal upset.
• B. You may take nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications (NSAIDs) for arthritis pain.
• C. You should monitor your serum glucose more closely while taking levofloxacin.
• D. You should take levofloxacin on an empty stomach to improve absorption.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Levofloxacin may increase the effects of oral hypoglycemic medications, so patients taking these should be advised to monitor their serum glucose levels closely.

2. A client is tested for HIV with the use of an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA), and the test result is positive. The nurse should tell the client that:

• A. HIV infection has been confirmed
• B. The client probably has an opportunistic infection
• C. The test will need to be confirmed with the use of a Western blot
• D. A positive test is a normal result and does not mean that the client is infected with HIV

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When an ELISA test for HIV is positive, it is essential to confirm the result with a Western blot. The Western blot is the confirmatory test for HIV. Choice A is incorrect because a positive ELISA test does not confirm HIV infection. Choice B is incorrect as it assumes a different diagnosis. Choice D is incorrect because a positive ELISA test does indicate potential HIV infection and requires confirmation.

3. The nurse is assessing a client with a diagnosis of pre-renal acute kidney injury (AKI). Which condition would the nurse expect to find in the client’s recent history?

• A. Pyelonephritis
• B. Myocardial infarction
• C. Bladder cancer
• D. Kidney stones

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In pre-renal acute kidney injury, there is a decrease in perfusion to the kidneys. Myocardial infarction can lead to decreased blood flow to the kidneys, causing pre-renal AKI. Pyelonephritis is an intrinsic/intrarenal cause of AKI involving kidney damage. Bladder cancer and kidney stones are post-renal causes of AKI due to urinary flow obstruction, not related to perfusion issues seen in pre-renal AKI.

4. A 20-year-old female client calls the nurse to report a lump she found in her breast. Which response is the best for the nurse to provide?

• A. Check it again in one month, and if it is still there schedule an appointment.
• B. Most lumps are benign, but it is always best to come in for an examination.
• C. Try not to worry too much about it, because usually, most lumps are benign.
• D. If you are in your menstrual period it is not a good time to check for lumps.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse advising the client to come in provides the best response because it addresses the client's anxiety most effectively and encourages prompt and immediate action for a potential problem.

5. A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a nephrostomy. Which assessment findings should alert the nurse to urgently contact the healthcare provider? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Foul-smelling drainage
• B. Bloody drainage at site
• C. A & B
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After a nephrostomy, the nurse should assess the client for complications and urgently notify the provider if there is foul-smelling drainage, bloody drainage at the site, or both. Foul-smelling drainage can indicate infection, while bloody drainage may suggest bleeding. Clear drainage is generally normal after a nephrostomy. A headache would not typically be directly related to nephrostomy complications. Therefore, options A and B are correct choices for urgent notification, making option C the correct answer.

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