a nurse is getting a client out of bed for the first time since surgery the nurse raises the head of the bed and the client complains of dizziness whi
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

RN Medical/Surgical NGN HESI 2023

1. A client is getting out of bed for the first time since surgery. The client complains of dizziness after the nurse raises the head of the bed. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client experiences dizziness after being positioned upright for the first time post-surgery, the initial action the nurse should take is to lower the head of the bed slowly until the dizziness subsides. This maneuver helps alleviate the dizziness by allowing the body to adapt gradually to the change in position. Subsequently, the nurse should assess the client's pulse and blood pressure. Checking the blood pressure is essential to evaluate the circulatory status and rule out orthostatic hypotension as a cause of dizziness. Checking the oxygen saturation level and having the client take deep breaths are not the priority in this scenario as the primary concern is addressing the circulatory issue causing dizziness, not a respiratory problem.

2. A client with autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) asks, “Will my children develop this disease?” How should the nurse respond?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Children whose parent has the autosomal dominant form of PKD have a 50% chance of inheriting the gene that causes the disease. ADPKD is transmitted as an autosomal dominant trait and therefore is not gender-specific. Both parents do not need to have this disorder. Choice A is incorrect because ADPKD has a known genetic link and a definitive mode of inheritance. Choice B is incorrect as ADPKD is not sex-linked but autosomal dominant. Choice C is incorrect because ADPKD follows an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern and does not require both parents to be carriers for the child to inherit the disease.

3. The client with diabetes mellitus is being taught how to prevent or delay chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which client statements indicate a lack of understanding of the teaching? (Select all that apply.)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Both statements A and B indicate a lack of understanding of CKD prevention. Taking aspirin every 4 to 8 hours can lead to kidney damage, and maintaining a body mass index (BMI) of 30 is considered overweight, which can increase the risk of developing CKD. Statement C, on the other hand, correctly addresses smoking cessation, which is crucial in preventing CKD. Therefore, choices A and B are incorrect as they do not align with CKD prevention strategies, making option D the correct choice.

4. The client with peripheral artery disease has been prescribed clopidogrel (Plavix). The nurse understands that more teaching is necessary when the client states which of the following?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Weakness, dizziness, and headache are common adverse effects of Plavix and should be reported. It is essential to consult a physician before stopping Plavix as it plays a crucial role in preventing platelets from sticking together and forming clots. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is a common side effect of Plavix and does not indicate a need for further teaching. Choice B is incorrect because taking Plavix with or without food can affect its absorption and effectiveness. Choice D correctly explains the purpose of prescribing Plavix to prevent clot formation.

5. A nurse cares for a client with urinary incontinence. The client states, “I am so embarrassed. My bladder leaks like a young child’s bladder.” How should the nurse respond?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should accept and acknowledge the client’s concerns, and assist the client to learn techniques that will allow control of urinary incontinence. The nurse should not diminish the client’s concerns with the use of pads or stating statistics about the occurrence of incontinence.

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