Nursing Elites

1. A client is getting out of bed for the first time since surgery. The client complains of dizziness after the nurse raises the head of the bed. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Checking the client’s blood pressure
• B. Checking the oxygen saturation level
• C. Having the client take some deep breaths
• D. Lowering the head of the bed slowly until the dizziness is relieved

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client experiences dizziness after being positioned upright for the first time post-surgery, the initial action the nurse should take is to lower the head of the bed slowly until the dizziness subsides. This maneuver helps alleviate the dizziness by allowing the body to adapt gradually to the change in position. Subsequently, the nurse should assess the client's pulse and blood pressure. Checking the blood pressure is essential to evaluate the circulatory status and rule out orthostatic hypotension as a cause of dizziness. Checking the oxygen saturation level and having the client take deep breaths are not the priority in this scenario as the primary concern is addressing the circulatory issue causing dizziness, not a respiratory problem.

2. Which of the following is a priority intervention for a patient with heart failure?

• A. Administering diuretics.
• B. Administering oxygen.
• C. Administering beta-blockers.
• D. Administering vasodilators.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering oxygen is a priority intervention in heart failure because it helps improve oxygenation, alleviate hypoxemia, and reduce the workload on the heart. Oxygen therapy is crucial in managing acute heart failure exacerbations. While diuretics (Choice A) are commonly used in heart failure to reduce fluid overload, administering oxygen takes precedence due to its immediate impact on oxygen delivery. Beta-blockers (Choice C) and vasodilators (Choice D) are also important in heart failure management, but in the acute setting, ensuring adequate oxygen supply is the priority.

3. Why is lactated Ringer’s solution given to a patient experiencing vomiting and diarrhea?

• A. To increase interstitial and intracellular hydration
• B. To maintain plasma volume over time
• C. To pull water from the interstitial space into the extracellular fluid
• D. To replace water and electrolytes

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Lactated Ringer’s solution is an isotonic solution commonly used to replace water and electrolytes lost due to conditions like vomiting and diarrhea. It helps to restore fluid balance by replacing the lost volume and electrolytes. Option A is incorrect because hypotonic fluids, not lactated Ringer’s solution, increase interstitial and intracellular hydration. Option B is incorrect as colloidal solutions, not lactated Ringer’s solution, are used to maintain plasma volume over time. Option C is incorrect as hypertonic solutions, not lactated Ringer’s solution, pull water from the interstitial space into the extracellular fluid.

4. The nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative for a femoral head fracture repair. Which intervention(s) should the nurse plan to administer for deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis?

• A. Pneumatic compression devices
• B. Incentive spirometry
• C. Assisted ambulation
• D. Calf-pump exercises

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis in a postoperative client with a femoral head fracture repair is the use of pneumatic compression devices. These devices help prevent stasis in the lower extremities by promoting venous return through intermittent compression. Incentive spirometry is used to prevent respiratory complications by promoting lung expansion and clearing secretions, not for DVT prophylaxis. Assisted ambulation and calf-pump exercises are beneficial for promoting circulation and preventing DVT, but pneumatic compression devices are more effective in this specific postoperative scenario.

5. A client with kidney stones from secondary hyperoxaluria requires medication. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering?

• A. Phenazopyridine (Pyridium)
• B. Propantheline (Pro-Banthine)
• C. Tolterodine (Detrol LA)
• D. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Allopurinol (Zyloprim). Allopurinol is used to treat kidney stones caused by secondary hyperoxaluria. This medication helps prevent the formation of certain types of kidney stones. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Phenazopyridine (Pyridium) is given to clients with urinary tract infections, not for kidney stones. Propantheline (Pro-Banthine) is an anticholinergic medication used for treating certain gastrointestinal conditions, not kidney stones. Tolterodine (Detrol LA) is also an anticholinergic with smooth muscle relaxant properties, primarily used to treat overactive bladder conditions, not kidney stones.

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