a nurse cares for a middle aged female client with diabetes mellitus who is being treated for the third episode of acute pyelonephritis in the past ye
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HESI RN

HESI Medical Surgical Practice Quiz

1. A middle-aged female client with diabetes mellitus is being treated for the third episode of acute pyelonephritis in the past year. The client asks, 'What can I do to help prevent these infections?' How should the nurse respond?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clients with long-standing diabetes mellitus are at risk for pyelonephritis due to various reasons. Elevated blood glucose levels in diabetes can lead to glucose spilling into the urine, altering the pH and creating a conducive environment for bacterial growth. Neuropathy associated with diabetes can reduce bladder tone and diminish the sensation of bladder fullness, resulting in less frequent voiding and increased risk of stasis and bacterial overgrowth. Increasing fluid intake, particularly water, and voiding regularly can help prevent stasis and microbial overgrowth. Testing urine for ketones and proteins or using tampons instead of sanitary napkins are not effective strategies for preventing pyelonephritis. Keeping the hemoglobin A1c levels below 9% is crucial for managing diabetes, but it alone does not directly prevent pyelonephritis.

2. A client is scheduled for an arteriogram. The nurse should explain to the client that the arteriogram will confirm the diagnosis of occlusive arterial disease by:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Showing the location of the obstruction and the collateral circulation. An arteriogram is a diagnostic procedure that involves injecting a contrast agent to visualize the blood vessels and identify the location of any obstructions. This helps confirm the diagnosis of occlusive arterial disease by showing where the blockage is located and how collateral circulation is compensating for the reduced blood flow. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because scanning the extremity, estimating velocity changes with ultrasound, or determining walking distance are not the primary purposes of an arteriogram in diagnosing occlusive arterial disease.

3. A client who is receiving chemotherapy asks the nurse, 'Why is so much of my hair falling out each day?' Which response by the nurse best explains the reason for alopecia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Chemotherapy affects the cells of the body that grow rapidly, both normal and malignant.' Chemotherapy targets rapidly dividing cells, which include not only cancer cells but also healthy cells like those in hair follicles. This leads to alopecia (hair loss) as a common side effect. Choice B is incorrect as alopecia is primarily associated with chemotherapy and not long-term steroid therapy. Choice C is incorrect because while hair may grow back after chemotherapy, it may not always be to the same extent or thickness. Choice D is incorrect as chemotherapy-induced hair loss is often temporary and reversible, not permanent alterations in hair follicles.

4. After a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy, the nurse should assess the client for:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Following a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy, assessing the client for a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak is crucial due to the risk of this serious complication. A CSF leak can lead to infection and increased intracranial pressure, which must be promptly identified and managed to prevent further complications. Fluctuating blood glucose levels (Choice B) are not directly associated with a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. Cushing's syndrome (Choice C) is a condition related to prolonged exposure to high levels of cortisol and is not a common immediate concern post-transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. Cardiac arrhythmias (Choice D) are not typically a direct complication of this surgical procedure, making it a less relevant concern compared to a CSF leak.

5. A nurse reviews the laboratory findings of a client with a urinary tract infection. The laboratory report notes a “shift to the left” in the client’s white blood cell count. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A “shift to the left” in a white blood cell count indicates an increase in band cells, which is typically associated with urosepsis. In this scenario, the nurse should notify the provider and initiate IV antibiotics as a left shift is often seen in severe infections like urosepsis. Requesting a differential analysis on white blood cells would not be the immediate action needed in response to a left shift. Collaborating to strain urine for renal calculi is unrelated to the situation of a left shift in white blood cells due to urosepsis. Assessing for allergic reactions and anaphylactic shock is not the priority as a left shift is not indicative of an allergic response; it is associated with an increase in band cells, not eosinophils.

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