Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary purpose of administering IV fluids to a patient in septic shock?

• A. To reduce blood pressure.
• B. To increase cardiac output.
• C. To stabilize blood glucose levels.
• D. To maintain adequate tissue perfusion.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The primary purpose of administering IV fluids to a patient in septic shock is to maintain adequate tissue perfusion. In septic shock, there is a significant drop in blood pressure and systemic vascular resistance leading to poor tissue perfusion. IV fluids help to restore intravascular volume, improve perfusion to vital organs, and prevent organ failure. Choice A ('To reduce blood pressure') is incorrect because IV fluids in septic shock aim to restore tissue perfusion rather than lower blood pressure. Choice B ('To increase cardiac output') is incorrect as the primary goal is to improve tissue perfusion, not specifically increase cardiac output. Choice C ('To stabilize blood glucose levels') is unrelated to the primary purpose of administering IV fluids in septic shock, which is to address the compromised tissue perfusion.

2. A client who has undergone abdominal surgery calls the nurse and reports that she just felt 'something give way' in the abdominal incision. The nurse checks the incision and notes the presence of wound dehiscence. The nurse immediately:

• A. Contacts the physician
• B. Documents the findings
• C. Places the client in a supine position with the legs flat
• D. Covers the abdominal wound with a sterile dressing moistened with sterile saline solution

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the scenario described, the presence of wound dehiscence indicates a separation of the layers of the surgical incision. The immediate priority for the nurse is to cover the abdominal wound with a sterile dressing moistened with sterile saline solution. This helps to protect the wound from contamination and promotes a moist environment conducive to healing. Contacting the physician (Choice A) is important, but the initial action should be to address the wound. Documenting the findings (Choice B) is necessary but not the immediate priority. Placing the client in a supine position with the legs flat (Choice C) is not indicated in this situation as wound dehiscence requires wound care intervention.

3. A male client expresses concern about how a hypophysectomy will affect his sexual function. Which of the following statements provides the most accurate information about the physiologic effects of hypophysectomy?

• A. Removing the source of excess hormone should restore the client's libido, erectile function, and fertility.
• B. Potency will be restored, but the client will remain infertile.
• C. Fertility will be restored, but impotence and decreased libido will persist.
• D. Exogenous hormones will be needed to restore erectile function after the adenoma is removed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the most accurate statement regarding the physiologic effects of hypophysectomy on sexual function. The client's sexual problems are directly related to excessive hormone levels. Removing the source of excess hormone secretion through hypophysectomy should allow the client to return to a normal physiologic pattern, which includes restoring libido, erectile function, and fertility. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B incorrectly states that the client will remain infertile, which is not necessarily true after a hypophysectomy. Choice C inaccurately suggests that fertility will be restored while impotence and decreased libido will persist, which is not aligned with the expected outcomes of hypophysectomy. Choice D is incorrect because exogenous hormones are typically not needed to restore erectile function after the adenoma is removed; rather, the removal of the source of excessive hormone secretion should address the sexual function concerns.

4. During an assessment on a patient brought to the emergency department for treatment for dehydration, the nurse notes a respiratory rate of 26 breaths/minute, a heart rate of 110 beats/minute, a blood pressure of 86/50 mm Hg, and a temperature of 39.5° C. The patient becomes dizzy when transferred from the wheelchair to a bed. The nurse observes cool, clammy skin. Which diagnosis does the nurse suspect?

• A. Fluid volume deficit (FVD)
• B. Fluid volume excess (FVE)
• C. Mild extracellular fluid (ECF) deficit
• D. Renal failure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should suspect Fluid Volume Deficit (FVD) in this patient. Signs of FVD include elevated temperature, tachycardia, tachypnea, hypotension, orthostatic hypotension, and cool, clammy skin, which align with the patient's assessment findings. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Fluid Volume Excess (FVE) typically presents with bounding pulses, elevated blood pressure, dyspnea, and crackles. Mild extracellular fluid (ECF) deficit usually manifests as thirst. Renal failure commonly results in Fluid Volume Excess (FVE) rather than Fluid Volume Deficit (FVD).

5. A nurse is suctioning a client through a tracheostomy tube. During the procedure, the client begins to cough, and the nurse hears a wheeze. The nurse tries to remove the suction catheter from the client’s trachea but is unable to do so. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Call a code
• B. Contact the physician
• C. Administer a bronchodilator
• D. Disconnect the suction source from the catheter

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Inability to remove a suction catheter is a critical situation that may indicate the presence of bronchospasm and bronchoconstriction, as evidenced by the client coughing and wheezing. The immediate action for the nurse is to disconnect the suction source from the catheter, allowing the catheter to remain in the trachea. By doing so, the nurse can then connect the oxygen source to the catheter to provide essential oxygenation to the client. Contacting the physician is necessary to notify them of the situation and to obtain further orders, typically for an inhaled bronchodilator to relieve the bronchospasm. Administering a bronchodilator without physician's orders is not within the nurse's scope of practice and should not be the first action. Calling a code would be excessive at this point and should only be done if the client's condition deteriorates and immediate resuscitation is required.

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